John 6 is not for us Gentiles to form any conclusion about the event of Christ on calvary.It was for the Jews as a prophecy of what they were going to do with JESUS. Jesus was to become the Lamb of God,replacing that Lamb which the traditional Jews would soon slaughter on the altar in the Temple for the Passover.<quoted text>
Why does the Apostle John call Jesus the Lamb of God?
Why did Jesus say "unless you eat the flesh of The Son of Man (the Lamb of God) you have no life in you"?
When people heard what Christ said, and walked away. Why didn't Jesus say "wait, its just a symbol".
Why did Jesus hold up the bread and say, "this IS my body"?
Why did Jesus say "for my flesh is real food indeed"?
Why did Ignatius of Antioch - disciple of the Apostle John say "Take note to those who hold heterodox opinions on the grace of Jesus Christ who has come to us.. see how contrary their opinions are to the mind of God... they abstain from The Eucharist because they do not confess that it is the flesh of Our Lord Jesus Christ."
Did the Apostle John teach Ignatius wrong?
The problem with you guys, is you sound down right wicked going against the Apostles.
You know not what you do.
You seem to think that it is all about transubstantiation.Well it is quite the opposite,it is all about JESUS and His relating to JEWS,both the disciples and the traditional (including Pharisees) about what was soon to happen.He knew they would be troubled at what He said,but most of all He laid out for them His people,what the MAN Christ Jesus would become as the final Lamb brought to the slaughter.Literally His flesh and blood would be consumed by the death,but that it was significant for the JEWS since they sacrificed yearly a LAMB,and later the priests and their assistants would eat the Lamb,burned after it was sacrificed. Even though they did not drink or eat the blood,it was still shed for them and their sins.
Jesus sought to shock them no doubt,and He also stated FACTS from Heaven which were not received.If those JEWS could not receive it,than why do you expect us to receive the teaching that He was offering the doctrine of Transubstantiation to them? You like your church continue to take the Word and expect it all to come to the Roman Catholic conclusion.When the Word was written by Jews and for Jews,and ultimately the gentile world.Jesus was crucified and we all know He was the Lamb of God,so why should we come to the conclusion that transubstantiation is the meaning,when Jesus became Sin for us,and took literally the place of the Lamb?
There is a big difference between the prophecy of Jesus to His people in John chapter 6 and the teaching of transubstantiation as taught by your church.