"Jerome the translator of the Latin Bible did not consider them scripture either as did the early church fathers, as did the Jews as did Jesus."<quoted text>
I don't know what you have recently posted or not.
Luther did not pull any books out.
I was confirmed in a Luther fellowship many years ago and my bible included the Apocrypha not to be considered scripture to be used for doctrine but an aid as would a writing of an early church father.
The Books where never canonized by the RCC until the 16th century. After Luther declared them not to be considered scripture.
But the question is which Apocrypha it has changed over the centuries.
Jerome the translator of the Latin Bible did not consider them scripture either as did the early church fathers, as did the Jews as did Jesus.
If you wish to enter into a debate of the facts be prepared to be soundly defeated, I know what I am posting I have studied intensely and I am ready to give an answer to the truth in and out of season.
St. Jerome was sceptical, but in the end did agree. Certainly the fathers did debate, even some books that we both consider today were debated. The Jews of the diaspora had the Septuagint. You seem to want to place the burden of proof on the Catholic Church, but why do the Orthodox and all the other ancient Churches consider them scripture?