What are the reasons you believe the statistics are skewed? Just classification?<quoted text>
I personally think that the statistics are a bit skewed.
What do we call a father that rapes his own children? What do we accuse them of?
Normally we would refer to these fathers as one who commits incest. Sometimes we refer to them as child rapists.
Why don't we use the term "pedophiles" to describe them?
If cases of incest are also not considered pedophilia than I would agree but i would have to see something that indicates that is how the date is collected. Because obvious parents or step-parents molesting a child are most likely heterosexual. But I would be very surprised if for example incest is not also included in the national stats for abuse that categorize the abuser
I don't know. I used to think like this too but are we simplifying it too much? I was under the impression pedophiles generally stick to one sex. For example obviously someone molests little boys or someone molests little girls but its the rarity its both and/or a major exception if it does occur<quoted text>
I also think that we confuse our definitions.
Homosexuals - sex with same gender
Heterosexuals - sex with the opposite gender
Pedophile - sex with children
So if a man only molests girls it would seem (to me anyway) he has some heterosexual desires that are mixed up with his pedophilia
And if a man only molests boys it would seem (to me anyway) he has some homosexual desires that are mixed up with his pedophilia
You know me, this is no attempt to paint the homosexual community as pedophiles. But if the percentage of abusers are pretty much equal between straight and gay and yet gay only makes up 10% of the population, we do need to find out if that correlation means something
I don't know what and part of the problem is we still don't know much about why people are pedophiles. But its important people research with the goal being children's safety, not trying to disparage some group.