Holy crap. Is the OT part of the Christian bible? Lemme answer that for you. Yes, it is.<quoted text>
I see no reason to prove a negative
Like I keep saying, please post the exact verses from the Christian Bible that condone slavery
Not some round-about attempt to make some Vayikra midrash connection to Mosaic Law and apparently claim that makes them synonymous.
It is a pretty simple request. If there are verses in the Christian Bible that condone slavery, let me know which verses so I can see for myself
Let me Google something for you.
Are these books in the Christian bible? Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy. Yes they are.
From the original post you're confused about.
http://www.topix.com/forum/topstories/T0N0LOR...Biblical verse that relate directly to the Midrash exegesis. Genesis 17:13, Genesis 17:27, Exodus 20:10, Exodus 21:1-4, Exodus 21:7, Exodus 21:8, Exodus 21:16, Exodus 21:20-21, Exodus 21:26-27, Leviticus 19:20-22, Leviticus 25:39, Leviticus 25:44-46, Leviticus 25:48-53, Numbers 31:28-47, Deuteronomy 15:12-18, Deuteronomy 21:10-14, Deuteronomy 20:14, Deuteronomy 23:15-16, 2 Samuel 9:10
The NT didn't abolish slavery or change anything stated in the OT, it only stated that all people, slave, Gentile etc., were open to following the NT/OT - religion. Mark 14:66, 1 Corinthians 12:13, Colossians 3:11,1 Timothy 6:1-2
There are likely more verses in the OT/NT that speak of slavery in the sense that it was natural, and condoned by the deity. Something that was a part of daily life. Genesis would be a good example of this, since it's said to have been communicated to the Moses! by the Yahweh!, for instance.
Did you miss that?
Okay, do you understand that Midrash does not change anything in context or meaning found in the bible, it doesn't supersede or alter a thing.
Show one place where I said Midrash was followed by Christians or changed the meaning of the bible at all, for that matter.
You're confused, in that you think I said something I didn't.
You've gone off on some tangent, as if you thought I said you are required to follow Midrash. I didn't. That wasn't the intent, implied or otherwise.
I supplied it to illustrate what Judaic thought was concerning the biblical passages, which does not change the meaning of the biblical verses at all, they are still a part of the Christian bible.
Can I be any more clear?