Shalowm again, my Brother.You know it is interesting that in your attempt to understand what I have been trying to explain here you have have posted scriptures that bare out the point that I have been trying to make that Christ and God are ONE, you ask me why the Apostles continued to refer to him as the son of God after he ascended back up into heaven, the bible lets us that that the things of God that WERE is often spoken of as if they still ARE and those things that are to COME as well, I say again that Jesus and God are ONE as per the scripture you posted in John 17:5 and from the first chalter of John that tells us that he is the Word that was with God in the beginning and the Word that WAS God that created all things in existence.
Jesus is the Word right now in the 3rd heaven and again..........that which was son is whom will be coming back with heavenly army to do battle ar armageddon, Revelation 19:13 says his name is the WORD OF GOD, this is all the mystery of the ONE true Godhead and so Jesus will always be refered to as the son of God regardless as he is the Father, the Word and the Holy Ghost all rolled into ( for lack of a better term ).
But I suggest that you pray over what you do not understand brother and may God Bless you.
I apologize for continuing with this. I'm really not trying to be a jerk. I truly am trying to understand, but my mind won't stop with the questions. Bear with me, please and if you will. Anyway...
I believe I know the scripture you're referring to. At John 10:30, it's recorded that our anointed Savior declared, "I and my Father are one." I don't question this. I agree. But, what I do question is what was meant. Following is an example as to why.
What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
Now, what do these two verses, John 10:30 and 1Corinthians 6:16, have in common?
ANSWER: Both use the identical Greek term and definition for "one," which is "heis."
I and my Father are [heis].
What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is [heis] body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.
As we can see, Paul used the identical Greek term and definition that's interpreted as "one" at 1Corinthians 6:16 as John used at John 10:30. Now, my questions to you are these.
1) Are we to interpret Paul's use of the term "one" as literal rather than figurative?
2) Does a man and harlot, according to Paul, become "one body," literally?
3) Was Paul simply alluding to how a man and harlot become joined, but in a figurative sense?
As you most likely know, most (if not all) agree that Paul was speaking figuratively. Now, my question to you is this.
1) Knowing that the interpretation of the Greek term and definition is used figuratively at 1Corinthians 6:16, why should we apply a literal interpretation of the same Greek term and definition at John 10:30?
2) Why should we believe that Paul was speaking figuratively, but John literally?
What say you, my Brother?