You know it is interesting that in your attempt to understand what I have been trying to explain here you have have posted scriptures that bare out the point that I have been trying to make that Christ and God are ONE, you ask me why the Apostles continued to refer to him as the son of God after he ascended back up into heaven, the bible lets us that that the things of God that WERE is often spoken of as if they still ARE and those things that are to COME as well, I say again that Jesus and God are ONE as per the scripture you posted in John 17:5 and from the first chalter of John that tells us that he is the Word that was with God in the beginning and the Word that WAS God that created all things in existence.<quoted text>But, isn't the doctrine of the "trinity" based on the belief that "God" is only one entity, but revealed in three distinct positions? Isn't this what you believe?
<quoted text>If Father is called "God," and our anointed Savior is called "God," then wouldn't this explain why Father is called "God of gods" at such verses as Deuteronomy 10:17?
<quoted text>No offense intended and I apologize, but I only substitute the terms used with terms that share the exact definition.
<quoted text>But, what say you regarding the "implication" that our anointed Savior is and going to tremain subject to Father in those verses? How is this possible?
<quoted text>From Acts on, our anointed Savior was referred to as "God's" Son more than 60 times. My point is, our anointed Savior had already ascended by this time. Why did the authors of our "New Testament" still refer to our anointed Savior as "God's" Son if he no longer serves as His Son?
<quoted text>Not really, my Brother. And I apologize. I am trying. Consider the following, please and if you will.
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
How is this possible, that our anointed Savior, first, asked to be glorified by Father and had glory with Father while he, according to you, was Father?
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Isn't it possible that the "God" in the center portion of this verse is different from the "God" in the latter portion, explaining why our Father is called "God of gods" at such verses as Deuteronomy 10:17?
And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
Was our anointed Savior speaking to himself?
But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
What's the significance of the terms "of" and "by?"
Jesus is the Word right now in the 3rd heaven and again..........that which was son is whom will be coming back with heavenly army to do battle ar armageddon, Revelation 19:13 says his name is the WORD OF GOD, this is all the mystery of the ONE true Godhead and so Jesus will always be refered to as the son of God regardless as he is the Father, the Word and the Holy Ghost all rolled into ( for lack of a better term ).
But I suggest that you pray over what you do not understand brother and may God Bless you.