so, you can be so sure. what is the greek phrase for "happy easter"? what is the spanish phrase for "happy easter"? how about the italian, french, dutch? they all use the same root word as the greek "pascha"<quoted text>... I would also be wrong, then, for using the actual, literal translation "Passover" at Acts 12:4 and not "Easter," considering that the actual, literal translation of "pascha," which is the actual, literal Greek term found in the verse and the actual, literal Greek equivalent of the Hebrew "pecach," is "Passover" and not "Easter."
NOTE: I'm fully aware that many concordances have "Easter" as a proper translation for the term "pascha." I believe this is most erroneous, though, as it's factual that the Israelites never observed, by commandment, any feast called "Easter," and the Greek "pascha" is, indeed, the equivalent of the Hebrew "pecach."
all these languages and they all translate easter the same way.
perhaps you should realize that the word pascha is really a chaldean word and may have a broader meaning than you wish to apply.
while the hebrew word for "passover" appears similar it may not even have any relationship to it.
the hebrew word for "pass over" as used in Exodus 12 is "pacach" which has an obvious relationship to "passover" in the hebrew which is "Pecach" always the feast.
however the Greek word for "pass over" is "parerchomal". it has no relationship to "pascha" which is translated "passover" or "easter".
so if this word "pascha" is really a chaldean/pagan word what do you think it could also mean?
the word it's self does not support your claim.
the universal use of the word does not support your claim.
now if you look at Acts 12, it says that peter was held during the days of the "unleavened bread" [Then were the days of unleavened bread, vs3] the Passover was the 14th day of the month and beginning with the 15th day to the 21st day [7 more days] was the feast of the unleavened bread. so the passover was already past. but easter, the pagan holiday or the celebration of the resurrection may not have already passed.
the words of the context do not support your claim.
now, why would herod wait for the passover to pass before he would execute peter? they had previously had no problem with executing Jesus on the passover. why would herod hold the passover as special? he was not a strict jew by any stretch of the imagination. but he could have held the pagan holiday as something special because ceasar did.
the context of the culture does not support your claim.
easter is the right translation as agreed by the 40 some translators of the KJ Bible who were certainly more gifted and learned in the languages than you or i and by those who went back and "corrected" mistakes that were found later.