Good question.What does this mean?
7 I will tell of the decree: the LORD said unto me:'Thou art My son, this day have I begotten thee.
8 Ask of Me, and I will give the nations for thine inheritance, and the ends of the earth for thy possession.
How could anything be the possession of anyone but God himself? And this is what they use to extrapolate the discrepancy. Again, how could anybody inherit anything of possession? And yet there it is in the Jewish version itself.
Psalm 2:7 shows that the LORD loved David and took him as a son just as a man loves his son.
Looking through the lens of Semitic languages, "This day I have begotten thee" means "Today, I have taken you as a son". God did not beget David, when David was already a grown up man.
Also, David was unknown and unheard of as a child.
In 2:8 God tells David to ask anything, be it nations or possession of all the earth.
However, I do not see David asking for that. His kingdom was only within the boundaries of Israel. The entire earth and nations were not under David and neither the entire earth was in his possession.
Psalm 2 is actually a warning to the rulers, judges and kings to fear God Almighty and wants them to be fair and to rule justly.
Off to bed now.