Who Is Allah?

Who Is Allah?

There are 243139 comments on the The Brussels Journal story from Aug 24, 2007, titled Who Is Allah?. In it, The Brussels Journal reports that:

“Allah is a very beautiful word for God. Shouldn't we all say that from now on we will name God Allah? [...] What does God care what we call him?”

From the desk of Soeren Kern on Fri, 2007-08-24 11:56 Europeans love to mock the salience of religion in American society. via The Brussels Journal

Join the discussion below, or Read more at The Brussels Journal.

Eric

Addison, IL

#166777 Mar 10, 2013
Shamma wrote:
<quoted text>I understand all that.
Like the Jews that stand on their oral traditions, so also does the Church.
The words of G-d came from the mouth of men of G-d inspired by G-d,
written Scripture are those words spoken.
I love it. "written scripture are those words spoken" a classic!

Further, an interesting difference:

Jewish scripture come from the mouth of G-D recorded by men.

Christian scripture come from the mouth of MEN.

As someone said recently, G-d only says 2 things in the entire New Testament.
Frank Incense

Hurricane, WV

#166778 Mar 10, 2013
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Septuagint

The Septuagint is an ancient translation of the Hebrew Bible and some related texts into Koine Greek, dated as early as the late 2nd century BCE. It is quoted in the New Testament, particularly in the writings of Paul the Apostle, and also by the Apostolic Fathers and later Greek Church Fathers, and continues to serve as the Eastern Orthodox Old Testament.

The traditional story is that Ptolemy II sponsored the translation for use by the many Alexandrian Jews who were not fluent in Hebrew but fluent in Koine Greek, which was the lingua franca of Alexandria, Egypt and the Eastern Mediterranean from the death of Alexander the Great in 323 BCE until the development of Byzantine Greek around 600 CE.
Frank Incense

Hurricane, WV

#166779 Mar 10, 2013
Eric wrote:
As someone said recently, G-d only says 2 things in the entire New Testament.
What CAN'T your "G-d" do?

“Legumes of the World Unite ”

Since: Sep 11

Location hidden

#166780 Mar 10, 2013
Frank Incense wrote:
<quoted text>What CAN'T your "G-d" do?
Calculus and programming my DVD player
Alex123 aka WM

London, UK

#166781 Mar 10, 2013
Paul WV wrote:
<quoted text>
What do you provide? Nothing. Your post are either 100% baloney or at best 99% baloney. I don't read your posts. I may skim them at best looking for something coherent to respond to.
clueless paul WV, please refer to my posts. If you can't understand them then you are indeed a lightweight.
You have already made a fool of yourself by clinging on to Greek to save your "scriptures".
You have no answers PaulWV because you are a blind follower of lies pumped by corrupt men and a disintegrating "church".

Here is a simple request...which bit does not make sense to you?

TRY answering it HONESTLY.

"Please provide Direct quote/s from Jesus confirming his divinity along the lines of:
I am Jesus and I am your God. I have come down to earth as promised in the Jewish scriptures, as my own son in human form to die on a Roman cross for the sins of Gentiles (and Jews). If you accept my willing loving and unconditional sacrifice, you shall be saved and shall have eternal life".

Go for it Pauil WV...
Please don't fob us off with comments from passers by, peasants, drunks, saint killers and publicans!

Thank you...
Alex123 aka WM

London, UK

#166782 Mar 10, 2013
Frank Incense wrote:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/S eptuagint
The Septuagint is an ancient translation of the Hebrew Bible and some related texts into Koine Greek, dated as early as the late 2nd century BCE. It is quoted in the New Testament, particularly in the writings of Paul the Apostle, and also by the Apostolic Fathers and later Greek Church Fathers, and continues to serve as the Eastern Orthodox Old Testament.
The traditional story is that Ptolemy II sponsored the translation for use by the many Alexandrian Jews who were not fluent in Hebrew but fluent in Koine Greek, which was the lingua franca of Alexandria, Egypt and the Eastern Mediterranean from the death of Alexander the Great in 323 BCE until the development of Byzantine Greek around 600 CE.
Who made your Paul "the apostle"?lol
Do you believe that man?
Amazingly, Jesus had forgotten to leave anything behind ion writing?
Alex123 aka WM

London, UK

#166783 Mar 10, 2013
Frijoles wrote:
<quoted text>
Calculus and programming my DVD player
He may do it through you...if you ask Him nicely? lol
Alex123 aka WM

London, UK

#166784 Mar 10, 2013
Paul WV wrote:
<quoted text>
allah can't forgive sins, he needs mohammad to forgive him his sins. But since mohammad is no longer around allah must remain in his sins.
This clearly shows what an idiot you are.
God does not need humans ypou fool.

Do you agree that your "holy" bible in arabic refers to God as Allah?

Try not to wriggle out of it ok?
John

Brisbane, Australia

#166785 Mar 10, 2013
Eric wrote:
<quoted text>
Where did you get this? The vernacular of the time was Aramaic. Greek was not spoken by the masses. Google, "what language did Jesus speak", and find out.
Oh FFS, in the Greco-Roman empire almost everybody spoke some Greek. Even the Latin speaking all conquering Romans spoke Greek as a second language in Italy itself, the graffiti of the period in Rome is as much in Greek as Latin.
Jesus himself grew up in the "Galilee of the Gentiles", the Greek part of Galilee.

The Roman Centurion
(Matthew 8:5-13; Luke 7:1-10)
Jesus healed (raised from the dead) the servant of a Roman centurion. While Luke's version of this story has Jewish synagogue elders approaching Jesus on behalf of the Roman, reporting him as a benefactor of their synagogue, Matthew's version portrays the centurion directly approaching Jesus and making his request in person. This discussion would certainly be carried out in Greek. Jesus is portrayed as speaking directly with the centurion.

Decapolis
(Luke 8:26-39; Mark 5:1-19)
Similarly Jesus interacts directly with the people in the Decapolis (Gadara/Gerasa), the possessed man, the pig owners (definitely not Jews!), the people of the village, etc. This would have been in Greek, since this was a specifically Greek area, settled by Greeks, still identified as the Ten (Greek) Cities [Deca-Polis].

Pilate
(Matt 27:11-14; Luke 23:1-5; Mark 15:1-5)
And look at the discussion Jesus had with Pilate. Laying aside the practical question of historical verification — "Who was in that chamber taking notes on their conversation?" — that conversation would have been in Greek, unless Pilate was using an interpreter, of which we have no indication in the Gospel story (though, admittedly, that is probably irrelevant to the purposes of the Gospelers). Jesus seems to be communicating one-on-one with this Roman governor.
Pilate would be a native speaker of Greek (though he may have also spoken Roman, or Latin). He may have been a primary speaker (Greek as the main language he used every day) and not necessarily a native bilingual of Greek. Greek was the language of Roman administration, and many governors were not Romans from Italy. They did not even have to be Roman. So I would be very surprised if anybody should put forward some evidence purporting to show that Pilate could even speak Aramaic.

“Legumes of the World Unite ”

Since: Sep 11

Location hidden

#166786 Mar 10, 2013
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aramaic_of_Jesus

It is generally agreed that Jesus and his disciples primarily spoke Aramaic, the common language of Palestine in the first century AD, most likely a Galilean dialect distinguishable from that of Jerusalem.[1]

Most of the apostles from the Galilee region also spoke Aramaic and the towns of Nazareth and Capernaum in Galilee, where Jesus lived, were primarily Aramaic-speaking communities.

Aramaic was the common language of the Eastern Mediterranean during and after the Neo-Assyrian, Neo-Babylonian, and Achaemenid Empires (722 BC – 330 BC) and remained a common language of the region in the 1st century AD.

In spite of the increasing importance of Greek, the use of Aramaic was also expanding, and it would eventually be dominant among Jews both in the Holy Land and elsewhere in the Middle East around 200 AD[2] and would remain so until the Arab conquest in the 7th century.

“Legumes of the World Unite ”

Since: Sep 11

Location hidden

#166787 Mar 10, 2013
http://epistlesofthomas.wordpress.com/2009/01...

Did Jesus speak Greek?

Filed under: Greek,Jesus,New Testament,Translation — Thomas @ 23:25

We know that Jesus spoke Aramaic because the gospel writers quote some of the Aramaic phrases he used and translate them for their Greek readers (e.g. Mk 5:41).

It has also been suggested by some that Jesus spoke Greek but there is no consensus concerning his fluency. In Mark for Everyone by Tom Wright which I recently reviewed Wright makes the startling statement:“It is virtually certain that, though Jesus and his followers would be able to speak and understand Greek, their normal everyday language would be Aramaic”(63). I say this is surprising because no one had previously suggested to me that some Galilean fishermen would be able to speak Greek. I could conceive of a tax collector speaking Greek but a fisherman? I had always been led to believe they were uneducated country bumpkins.

Although Google will provide a lot of results for the question “Did Jesus Speak Greek” there does not seem to be a lot of scholarly work done on the subject. Michael Wise in the Dictionary of Jesus and the Gospels from IVP is not nearly as emphatic as Wright, stating “The question whether [Jesus] also knew Hebrew and Greek can only be answered on theoretical grounds”(442). I have come across two articles by Stanley Porter that assert Jesus could not only speak Greek but was fluent enough to teach in that language. Obviously this has implications for interpreting the gospel accounts of his public ministry. They would not just be second hand translations of his teaching but could be the actual words he spoke.

Stanley E. Porter,“Did Jesus Ever Teach in Greek?” Tyndale Bulletin. 44:2 (1993): 199-235.
“…it is virtually certain that he used Greek at various times in his itinerant ministry”(235).

Stanley E. Porter,“Jesus and the Use of Greek: A Response to Maurice Casey.” Bulletin for Biblical Research. 10:1 (2000): 71-87.

As may be deduced from the title of the above article not everyone agrees with Porter’s conclusion, namely:

P. Maurice Casey,“In Which Language Did Jesus Teach?” Expository Times. 108:11 (1997) 326-28.

Casey argues for the use of Aramaic by Jesus in his teaching. No one is willing to argue that Jesus would not have known some Greek but the question is whether he was fluent enough to teach in that language. The consensus seems to be that it is likely that he spoke to some people in Greek because it is less likely that they knew Aramaic than that he would not have known Greek. In other words it is an argument based on probabilities and silence. Aren’t those the best kind?

“Legumes of the World Unite ”

Since: Sep 11

Location hidden

#166788 Mar 10, 2013
Its all Greek to me.

“Legumes of the World Unite ”

Since: Sep 11

Location hidden

#166789 Mar 10, 2013
Kalinychta !
Alex123 aka WM

London, UK

#166790 Mar 10, 2013
John wrote:
<quoted text>
Oh FFS, in the Greco-Roman empire almost everybody spoke some Greek. Even the Latin speaking all conquering Romans spoke Greek as a second language in Italy itself, the graffiti of the period in Rome is as much in Greek as Latin.
Jesus himself grew up in the "Galilee of the Gentiles", the Greek part of Galilee.
The Roman Centurion
(Matthew 8:5-13; Luke 7:1-10)
Jesus healed (raised from the dead) the servant of a Roman centurion. While Luke's version of this story has Jewish synagogue elders approaching Jesus on behalf of the Roman, reporting him as a benefactor of their synagogue, Matthew's version portrays the centurion directly approaching Jesus and making his request in person. This discussion would certainly be carried out in Greek. Jesus is portrayed as speaking directly with the centurion.
Decapolis
(Luke 8:26-39; Mark 5:1-19)
Similarly Jesus interacts directly with the people in the Decapolis (Gadara/Gerasa), the possessed man, the pig owners (definitely not Jews!), the people of the village, etc. This would have been in Greek, since this was a specifically Greek area, settled by Greeks, still identified as the Ten (Greek) Cities [Deca-Polis].
Pilate
(Matt 27:11-14; Luke 23:1-5; Mark 15:1-5)
And look at the discussion Jesus had with Pilate. Laying aside the practical question of historical verification — "Who was in that chamber taking notes on their conversation?" — that conversation would have been in Greek, unless Pilate was using an interpreter, of which we have no indication in the Gospel story (though, admittedly, that is probably irrelevant to the purposes of the Gospelers). Jesus seems to be communicating one-on-one with this Roman governor.
Pilate would be a native speaker of Greek (though he may have also spoken Roman, or Latin). He may have been a primary speaker (Greek as the main language he used every day) and not necessarily a native bilingual of Greek. Greek was the language of Roman administration, and many governors were not Romans from Italy. They did not even have to be Roman. So I would be very surprised if anybody should put forward some evidence purporting to show that Pilate could even speak Aramaic.
If not for verifiable historical records, these chaps may even claim that Jesus interacted with Russians and AngloSaxons, thus ending up with Russian and English NT!
Is there a strong case for Greek speaking pigs loaded with demons?

While playing with semantics they forget to ask simple questions.
Why did Jesus not ensure that his message was properly recorded and conveyed to the people to whom he was sent?
Perhaps he came for the Jews and there was no need for new scriptures, besides a few corrections/changes that were recorded by scribes but later got rid of by evil men?
These questions are simple...but try looking into them.
John

Brisbane, Australia

#166791 Mar 10, 2013
Most Jewish Funerary Inscriptions in Greek!

In the next article in the same issue of Biblical Archaeological Review, the author, Pieter W. Van Der Horst, points out that no less than 1,600 Jewish epitaphs -- funerary inscriptions -- are extant from ancient Palestine dating from 300 B.C. to 500 A.D. The geographical spread of these inscriptions reveal that Jews were living all over the world at that time, especially the Roman period. In other words, when Jesus' brother James said in Acts 15, "Moses has been preached in every city for generations past and is read in the synagogues on every sabbath" (v.21), he was simply stating the truth. Peter, in his first sermon, enumerates a list of the countries from which Jews came to worship on that first Pentecost of the newly formed Christian Church (Acts 2:9-11).

Van Der Horst goes on:

"One of the most surprising facts about these funerary inscriptions is that most of them are IN GREEK -- approximately 70 percent; about 12 percent are in Latin; and only 18 percent are in Hebrew or Aramaic.

"These figures are even more instructive if we break them down between Palestine and the Diaspora. Naturally in Palestine we would expect more Hebrew and Aramaic and less Greek. This is true, but not to any great extent. Even in Palestine approximately TWO-THIRDS of these inscriptions are in GREEK.

"APPARENTLY FOR A GREAT PART OF THE JEWISH POPULATION THE DAILY LANGUAGE WAS GREEK, EVEN IN PALESTINE. This is impressive testimony to the impact of Hellenistic culture on Jews in their mother country, to say nothing of the Diaspora.

"In Jerusalem itself about 40 PERCENT of the Jewish inscriptions from the first century period (before 70 C.E.) ARE IN GREEK. We may assume that most Jewish Jerusalemites who saw the inscriptions in situ were able to read them" ("Jewish Funerary Inscriptions -- Most Are in Greek," Pieter W. Van Der Horst, BAR, Sept.-Oct.1992, p.48).

These are shocking statements to all who have believed, and taught, that the Jews as a whole were ignorant of Greek during the time of Christ! Obviously, Judea was not a "backwater" and "boorish" part of the Roman Empire, but a most sophisticated and cultivated part. In fact, the Jewish Temple was acknowledged to be the finest building structure throughout the whole Empire! The Jewish people, because of their widespread dispersion in the Empire, for business and commercial purposes, mainly, spoke Greek rather fluently -- and this knowledge and usage of Greek was also common throughout Judea, as this new "funerary inscription" evidence attests!

Slam dunk.
Jesus spoke Greek.
JOEL

Mumbai, India

#166792 Mar 10, 2013
Frijoles wrote:
<quoted text>

You know squat about what Torah intends to answer and what it intends not to answer.
LOL.

I know enough to say that Torah has not contributed an iota to the march of human civilization or to individual growth and it is the laughing stock in intellectual circles.

Since: Apr 11

Location hidden

#166793 Mar 10, 2013
Frijoles wrote:
<quoted text>
The difference is that the Torah was written in Hebrew and is still understood thousands of years later in its native language, while the latter scriptures of Christianity are not. Not a small difference.
But the Jews cannot understand their own translations of their own native language, or even better don't care about what their Scripture say.

That is the point; because if the Jews believed and stayed in performing the sayings of God all through their history the world conditions would be in pleasing God today, and there would be the lamb laying down with the lion, and wars no more.

But the Jews didn't do that, and so God followed through on the prophecy He sent down to the Jews through the prophets.

God sent Prophets in warning the Jews what would happen if they stray away from Gods saying.

So what good is the native Hebrew language to the Jews when they them self should have understood their Scripture, but failed to obey God.

Jews are not willing to admit they failed as a chosen people by God, that they, the Jew were to be an example to the people's of the world unto God, but failed, and now want to blame Jesus Christ for their failures.

So explain Frijoles why the Jews failed to be that example to the world?
JOEL

Mumbai, India

#166794 Mar 10, 2013
Eric wrote:
<quoted text>

Jewish scripture come from the mouth of G-D recorded by men.
You mean that the Hebrew scripture (that's a copy of the scriptures of the older occultish civilizations of the Middle East) came from the mouth of a demonic being calling itself G-d.

There are many such demonic beings giving themselves grand titles but whose teachings are based on murder, wars, rapes, baby bashing, stoning sons to death, human sacrifices, animal sacrifices, incest/hypogamy, enslavement of the weak and other evils.....

ROFL.
Eric

Addison, IL

#166795 Mar 10, 2013
JOEL wrote:
<quoted text>
You mean that the Hebrew scripture (that's a copy of the scriptures of the older occultish civilizations of the Middle East) came from the mouth of a demonic being calling itself G-d.
No, G-d is the English substitution.
Frank Incense

Hurricane, WV

#166796 Mar 10, 2013
Alex123 aka WM wrote:
Who made your Paul "the apostle"?lol
Do you believe that man?
Amazingly, Jesus had forgotten to leave anything behind ion writing?
Evidently, the Church takes Paul at his word.

Umm, did Mohammad leave anything behind "ion" writing? I thought he was illiterate.

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