why cant jws answer simple questions?

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“email at ihveit@aol.com ”

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#1
Dec 14, 2012
 

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i have been asking this for about a month and not one jw has given any reasonal answer so i will ask on this specific thread AND NO I DONT Wwwant to discuss the trinity or hellfire or any other doctrine of the wt

the question is very simple..

why is it that the wt chose to translate the greek word "proscuneo" as obeiasance ONLY WHEN APPLIED TO JESUS..

yet they translate it as worship when the SAME GREEK WORD is applied to men, to angels, to GOD, and to satan..

its a simple enough question yet they refuse to answer it..

WHY JWS? WHY ? remember its THE SAME WORD

will
UNchained

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#2
Dec 14, 2012
 

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Good luck on getting a response from the JW's.
Remnant143999

Albuquerque, NM

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Dec 14, 2012
 

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Same thing with the greek word pornia. Jesus said the only reason for divorce was fornication, but jw's need a loophole so they use pornia. Let's see Jesus spoke Aramai, then the Bible was written in Latin ,then who knows how many languages before it got to English. You think whomever was in charge of translating could have made a lot of mistakes?

“Tight lines”

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Dec 14, 2012
 

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ihveit wrote:
i have been asking this for about a month and not one jw has given any reasonal answer so i will ask on this specific thread AND NO I DONT Wwwant to discuss the trinity or hellfire or any other doctrine of the wt
the question is very simple..
why is it that the wt chose to translate the greek word "proscuneo" as obeiasance ONLY WHEN APPLIED TO JESUS..
yet they translate it as worship when the SAME GREEK WORD is applied to men, to angels, to GOD, and to satan..
its a simple enough question yet they refuse to answer it..
WHY JWS? WHY ? remember its THE SAME WORD
will
Please prove your claim.
UNchained

Loudon, TN

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#5
Dec 14, 2012
 

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florida native wrote:
<quoted text>
Please prove your claim.
You just did.
bystander no more

Sacramento, CA

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#6
Dec 14, 2012
 

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Perhaps it's because we don't care about this issue.

“email at ihveit@aol.com ”

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Dec 14, 2012
 

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florida native wrote:
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Please prove your claim.
ihv i have nothing to prove... why didnt you answer my question..

cause you cant..

as to proof simply look up all the places where proscuneo is used of JESUS in the perverted wt bible and you will have the proof

look folks another jw who dont have the answer but he wants me to prove something that is well known... they cant all be that stupid
will

“email at ihveit@aol.com ”

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Dec 14, 2012
 

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bystander no more wrote:
Perhaps it's because we don't care about this issue.
ihv thats nothing more than a copout... you just dont know the answer do you? and it is a very important issue.. if the wt is lying to you about JESUS BEING WORSHIPPED are they also lying to you about other things? but lets keep on subject
will

“email at ihveit@aol.com ”

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Dec 14, 2012
 

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Remnant143999 wrote:
Same thing with the greek word pornia. Jesus said the only reason for divorce was fornication, but jw's need a loophole so they use pornia. Let's see Jesus spoke Aramai, then the Bible was written in Latin ,then who knows how many languages before it got to English. You think whomever was in charge of translating could have made a lot of mistakes?
yet how can one make a mistake of translating the same word that is used over 55 times in the NT?
will

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Dec 14, 2012
 

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bystander no more wrote:
Perhaps it's because we don't care about this issue.
Perhaps that is why you are still a Bystander and not a practicing JW.

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#11
Dec 14, 2012
 

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ihveit wrote:
i have been asking this for about a month and not one jw has given any reasonal answer so i will ask on this specific thread AND NO I DONT Wwwant to discuss the trinity or hellfire or any other doctrine of the wt
the question is very simple..
why is it that the wt chose to translate the greek word "proscuneo" as obeiasance ONLY WHEN APPLIED TO JESUS..
yet they translate it as worship when the SAME GREEK WORD is applied to men, to angels, to GOD, and to satan..
its a simple enough question yet they refuse to answer it..
WHY JWS? WHY ? remember its THE SAME WORD
will
will,

I copied and pasted your words into the WT word search window, and it says that these aren't valid words.

"proscuneo" as obeiasance

So sorry, but I can't answer your questions.

“email at ihveit@aol.com ”

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Dec 14, 2012
 

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Richardnak wrote:
<quoted text>
will,
I copied and pasted your words into the WT word search window, and it says that these aren't valid words.
"proscuneo" as obeiasance
So sorry, but I can't answer your questions.
ihv could be you and i both misspelled them? hehe
will

“email at ihveit@aol.com ”

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Dec 14, 2012
 

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Richardnak wrote:
<quoted text>
will,
I copied and pasted your words into the WT word search window, and it says that these aren't valid words.
"proscuneo" as obeiasance
So sorry, but I can't answer your questions.
ihv check the spelling.. I DONT ALWAYS GET IT RIGHT...
YOU SEE you may have trusted my spelling. in fact i am sure you did... then try proskuneo.. and that other one which i am not going to waste time with ha
why dont you get your trusty strongs concordance out with the kjv.. check out "worship" and you will find the greek word..

then check the same verse with the nwmt...

you will eventually learn that this word is NEVER, NEVER translated as worship when applied to JESUS..

anyhow dont you find it strange that the same word is translated different when applied to JESUS?

then you have to start wondering why... and i am sure if you would let him the holy spirit would guide you
will

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#16
Dec 15, 2012
 
ihveit wrote:
i have been asking this for about a month and not one jw has given any reasonal answer so i will ask on this specific thread AND NO I DONT Wwwant to discuss the trinity or hellfire or any other doctrine of the wt
the question is very simple..
why is it that the wt chose to translate the greek word "proscuneo" as obeiasance ONLY WHEN APPLIED TO JESUS..
yet they translate it as worship when the SAME GREEK WORD is applied to men, to angels, to GOD, and to satan..
its a simple enough question yet they refuse to answer it..
WHY JWS? WHY ? remember its THE SAME WORD
will
Examples?

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#17
Dec 15, 2012
 
ihveit wrote:
<quoted text>
ihv i have nothing to prove... why didnt you answer my question..
cause you cant..
as to proof simply look up all the places where proscuneo is used of JESUS in the perverted wt bible and you will have the proof
look folks another jw who dont have the answer but he wants me to prove something that is well known... they cant all be that stupid
will
You're arguing from a self-assumed pedestal.

You made the challenge. You stated your position but gave no support for any of it.

I predict that a counter-challenge will be done to your self-assumed position but with added documented support for the counter-challenge - which, of course, you'll promptly ignore and hot-air in reply.

You've done this so many times your habits are quite predictable by now.

:)
Remnant143999

Albuquerque, NM

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#18
Dec 15, 2012
 
I think this thread is about Bible words translated into English. One example I have all ways wondered about is why Paul in 1st
Thessalonians 1:14-15 said the Jews killed our Lord Jesus.

“Paradise Earth”

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#19
Dec 15, 2012
 

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ihveit wrote:
i have been asking this for about a month and not one jw has given any reasonal answer so i will ask on this specific thread AND NO I DONT Wwwant to discuss the trinity or hellfire or any other doctrine of the wt
the question is very simple..
why is it that the wt chose to translate the greek word "proscuneo" as obeiasance ONLY WHEN APPLIED TO JESUS..
yet they translate it as worship when the SAME GREEK WORD is applied to men, to angels, to GOD, and to satan..
its a simple enough question yet they refuse to answer it..
WHY JWS? WHY ? remember its THE SAME WORD
will
We have answered this question MANY MANY times.

Will just didn't agree with the answer and now is is pretending that wiw couldn't answer.

Will, that is VERY dishonest of you.

“Paradise Earth”

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#20
Dec 15, 2012
 

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ihveit wrote:
i have been asking this for about a month and not one jw has given any reasonal answer
Is Will being truthful here?

Here is where he asked it a few weeks ago:

http://www.topix.com/forum/religion/jehovahs-...

Did he get an answer?

“Paradise Earth”

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#21
Dec 15, 2012
 

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And again in this thread from the month before, Will gets plenty of answers:

http://www.topix.com/forum/religion/jehovahs-...

The fact is that will brings up this question every few weeks, gets given a full and accurate explanation and then pretends it didn't happen.
UNchained

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#22
Dec 15, 2012
 

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JW's are in for a rude awakening one day.

They will be wishing that they had worshiped Jesus in this life.

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