the new world trans. -facts you may n...

the new world trans. -facts you may not know

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Do U Abide N Christ

United States

#1 Dec 8, 2011
Westscott&Hort THE NEW WORLD TRANS.-FACTS YOU MAY NOT KNOW

We all know that the NWT was "translated" using the Westcott and Hort text. I thought that the Westcott &Hort text was fairly good. However, there are some facts about both Mr. Westcott & Mr. Hort that we should know. Westcott and Hort both graduated from Cambridge University in England at a time when Cambridge was repudiating orthodox Christianity. There is substantial evidence that Neither Westcott nor Hort were Christian believers, but rather simply Greek Scholars who also bought into Darwin's theory of evolution. Biographies written by family members after their deaths indicate that they were involved in secret occult clubs, such as the Eranus Club which met in homes and conducted seances. They also were founders of the Ghostly Guild, the forerunner of the Society of Physical Research, which had connections to the Theosophical Society of Madame Blavatsky. The Revealer showed some shocking similarities between the Theosophical Society started by Madame Blavatsky and the Watchtower. Charles Russell apparently copied much of Madame Blavatsky's ideas and incorporated them into the Watchtower Society. Now we understand why the New World Translating Committee chose the ,.'-Westcott and Hort text as the basis for their "translation," rather than the King James, which was translated from the "Received" (Majority) Text, and is a more literal translation. It is for the same reason they chose to use the "spiritistic" translations by Johannes Greber, whose wife was a "spiritualist,"' and the one by John Samuel Thompson, a "spiritist." (Both admitted getting, direction from the "spirit world" for their translations.)'The "New World Translation" is not a translation at all.

All the translating committee did, was go over each text, and when they felt that a text repudiated their occult doctrine, they altered it. The Westcott & Hort text, not being a literal translation, apparently made it easier to alter the verses. However, when we use the Kingdom Interlinear it reveals many of the places where they altered the verse. We can still use the New World Translation in dealing with Jehovah's Witnesses, but we should use the Kingdom Interlinear along with it. The more we research, the more it becomes evident that Satan's cronies are all interwoven together. What a mess they have made. References: 1. Life; Letters by Arthur Hort 2. Westcott & Hort: The Occult Connection ; New Greek Text by Les Garrett 3. The Founders of Physical Research by Alan Gauld. This reminded me of the fact that the Watchtower Society and all Jehovah's Witnesses are following the teachings of an attorney, Joseph F.Rutherford. If you are following an attorney, you are more than likely LOST IN THE WOODS!

Ben57

Ovingham, Australia

#2 Dec 9, 2011
The NWT did use the Westcott and Hort text along with a large number of other texts. They did not just rely on the one set of writings. They compared the following
Sources for the Text of the New World Translation—Hebrew Scriptures Original Hebrew Writings and Early Copies
Aramaic Targums
Dead Sea Scrolls
Samaritan Pentateuch
Greek Septuagint
Old Latin
Coptic, Ethiopic, Armenian
Hebrew Consonantal Text
Latin Vulgate
Greek Versions—Aquila, Theodotion, Symmachus
Syriac Peshitta
Masoretic Text
Cairo Codex
Petersburg Codex of the Prophets
Aleppo Codex
Ginsburg’s Hebrew Text
Codex Leningrad B 19A
Biblia Hebraica (BHK), Biblia Heb

Sources for the Text of the New World Translation—Christian Greek Scriptures Original Greek Writings and Early Copies
Armenian Version
Coptic Versions
Syriac Versions—Curetonian, Philoxenian, Harclean,
Palestinian, Sinaitic, Peshitta
Old Latin
Latin Vulgate
Sixtine and Clementine Revised Latin Texts
Greek Cursive MSS.
Erasmus Text
Stephanus Text
Textus Receptus
Griesbach Greek Text
Emphatic Diaglott
Papyri—(e.g., Chester Beatty P45, P46, P47; Bodmer P66, P74,P75)
Early Greek Uncial MSS.—Vatican 1209 (B), Sinaitic (א),
Alexandrine (A), Ephraemi Syri rescriptus (C), Bezae (D)
Westcott and Hort Greek Text
Bover Greek Text
Merk Greek Text
Nestle-Aland Greek Text
United Bible Societies Greek Text
23 Hebrew Versions (14th-20th centuries), translated either from the Greek or from the Latin Vulgate, using Tetragrammaton for divine name

I will put forward the idea that the NWT CORRECTED many places that many other translations messed up.

ANY JW that thinks that the NWT is the best rendering is mistaken. There are several Bibles that are just as good as the NWT, but where one falls down the other is better. There is NO PERFECT rendering of the old texts anywhere. That is why the WTS uses a variety of Bibles in its publications.

The NWT has the least theological bias that any other Bible currently available, but it does need some improvements in the rendering of some passages
JWs are AntiChrist

United States

#3 Dec 9, 2011
THE NWT was written to prop up the false doctrines of the jehovah's witness cult.

If the dead will be resurrected during the millennial reign of Christ and judged according to their deeds during that time, why does the Bible explicitly say in Rev 20:4-5 that the “(The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended)”? How could they be judged according to their deeds during the 1,000 year reign of Christ, if they will not come to life until after this period is over? Why does the NWT have parentheses around this verse? Similarly, if the dead will be resurrected during the millennial reign of Christ and judged according to their deeds during that time, why does the Bible say that the dead will come out of their tombs and “those who did (past tense) good things to a resurrection of life, those who practiced (past tense) vile things to a resurrection of judgement”(Jn 5:28-29), and why does the Bible say that men are “to die once” and “after this (ie. death) a judgment”(Heb 9:27)?

The forward to the Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT),1985 edition, on page 8 states,“Our primary desire has been to seek not the approval of men but that of God, by rendering the truth of his inspired Word as purely and as consistently as our dedicated abilities make possible. There is no benefit in self-deception." On page 9 it is stated, "We offer no paraphrase of the Scriptures. Our endeavor throughout has been to give as literal a translation as possible where the modern English idiom allows for it or where the thought content is not hidden due to any awkwardness in the literal rendition. In this way, we can best meet the desire of those who are scrupulous for getting, as nearly as possible word for word, the exact statement of the original." The NWT translates Jn 14:14 as,“If you ask anything in my name, I will do it.” If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it completely omit the word “me” after the phrase “If you ask”, even though the word “me” is in the original Greek. See Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT). If the NWT correctly translated Jn 14:14 from the original Greek and included the word “me” after “ask” in this verse, how would this verse read? How could a person “ask” Jesus for something without praying to him? How can the NWT be “rendering the truth of his inspired Word as purely” as possible , and how can it be “as literal a translation as possible” when the “translators” knowingly omit this word (“me”) so that this verse does not contradict the teachings of the WTS?
JWs are AntiChrist

United States

#4 Dec 9, 2011
If the present earth will never be destroyed or depopulated, why does Zeph 1:2-3 say,“I shall without fail finish everything off the surface of the ground,’ is the utterance of Jehovah.‘I shall finish off earthling man and beast… and I will cut off mankind from the surface of the ground, is the utterance of Jehovah”? The Hebrew word translated here as “finish off” in the NWT is “cuwph”(Strong’s # 05486) which means “to cease; to come to an end”, according to Strong’s Hebrew Dictionary. How can this be if the WTS is correct and faithful Witnesses will survive Armageddon and live forever in paradise on the present earth? In addition, Isa 65:17 says,“For here I am creating new heavens and a NEW earth, and the former things will not be called to mind…” If the present earth will never be destroyed, why will God be “creating” a “new” earth? Notice that this verse does not say “cleanse”, but “create”. What do the words “create” and “new” mean to you? Similarly, 2Pet 3:10-13 says,“Yet Jehovah’s day will come as a thief, in which the heavens will pass a way with a hissing noise, but the elements being intensely hot will be dissolved, and the earth and the works in it will be discovered. Since all these things are thus to be dissolved, what sort of persons ought you to be… through which [the] heavens being on fire will be dissolved and [the] elements being intensely hot will melt! But there are new heavens and a NEW EARTH that we are awaiting, according to his promise…” How can people live forever in paradise on this present earth, if the earth will “be dissolved” and “melt” and if we are awaiting a “new” earth?
JWs are AntiChrist

United States

#5 Dec 9, 2011
According to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, the Greek word “heos”(Strong’s # 2193) means “till, until”.

Why is there theological bias and why does the NWT mistranslate the Greek word “heos” in Mt 5:18 as “sooner would” instead of “until”, completely changing the meaning of this verse?

If the Greek word “heos” was translated correctly as “until” in this verse, what would this verse say about the future of this present earth?

Why is this Greek word translated as “until” in the KIT, but rendered “sooner would” in the NWT? Why the inconsistency in the translation? See Zeph 3:13 and Isa 28:15.
JWs are AntiChrist

United States

#6 Dec 9, 2011
If the NWT is not filled with theological bias in their translation of the Bible, why does it alter the written word of God by adding the words “[in symbol]” in Mk 1:4, even though these words don’t appear in the Greek? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. How would Mk 1:4 read if the words “[in symbol]” had not been added? In Acts 2:38, Peter says “… Repent, and let each one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ FOR FORGIVENESS OF YOUR SINS…” and in Acts 22:16, Ananias tells Paul “…Rise, get baptized and WASH YOUR SINS AWAY by calling on his name.” If baptism is only a symbolic display of faith in God and does not effect the remission of sins, then why does Peter tell the people of Jerusalem to be baptized “for forgiveness of your sins” and why does Ananias tell Paul to get baptized in order to “wash your sins away”?
JWs are AntiChrist

United States

#7 Dec 9, 2011
If the NWT is not filled with theological bias in their translation of the Bible, why does the NWT add the word “[the]” to the phrase “of our God and savior Jesus Christ” in 2Pet 1:1. 2Pet 1:11, 2:20, and 3:18, which contain the same exact phrase in the Greek with the exception that these verses contain the word “lord”(kyrios) instead of the word “God”(Theos), don’t have the word “[the]” added to them.

See Greek-English Interlinear. What is the reason for this gross inconsistency in translation of these phrases? How would 2 Pet 1:1 read if it had been translated the same way as 2Pet 1:11, 2:20, and 3:18, and the word “[the]” had not been added? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.

“Truth is where you find it”

Since: Jun 11

Watsontown, PA

#8 Dec 9, 2011
Where, is this bible that has no theological bias, that we keep hearing about? Or don't we? I guess we won't hear about it, "till heaven and earth pass away". Don't get me wrong, I like the NWT, if for no other reason than it's read-ability. Yes, it is theologically biased in some areas. It does put Jehovah's name in the Greek text, which may or may not have been in the originals. We will never know, because they are no longer existent. I guess for some it takes the shine off of Jesus' name, and they don't care for that. Personally I think that attitude is foolish, since Jesus actual name in Hebrew is made from the name Jehovah, in part, as a descriptive term (Jehovah saved). Possibly pointing to the fact that God would use him to save mankind from their sinful condition. So, now as I said, where is this perfect bible version we all don't keep hearing about?

sidgi
Ben57

Adelaide, Australia

#9 Dec 9, 2011
All BIBLES that we have, have theological bias in them, each and every one of them them. The NWT has the least theological bias of all yje popular Bibles available
Ben57

Adelaide, Australia

#10 Dec 9, 2011
Revelation 20:4-5 “ And I saw thrones; and they sat upon them, and judgment was given to them; and the souls of those beheaded on account of the testimony of Jesus, and on account of the word of God; and those who had not done homage to the beast nor to his image, and had not received the mark on their forehead and hand; and they lived and reigned with the Christ a thousand years:5 the rest of the dead did not live till the thousand years had been completed. This is the FIRST RESURRECTION. 6 Blessed and holy he who has part in the FIRST RESURRECTION: over these the second death has no power; but they shall be priests of God and of the Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.”(Authorised King James)

Revelation 20:5, 6 refers to the resurrection of those who will reign with Christ as “the first resurrection.” The apostle Paul speaks of this first resurrection also as “THE EARLIER RESURRECTION from the dead [literally, the out-resurrection the out of dead (ones)].”(Php 3:11, NW, Ro, Int) On the expression Paul uses here, Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament (1931, Vol. IV, p. 454) says:“Apparently Paul is thinking here only of the resurrection of believers out from the dead and so double ex [out](ten exanastasin ten ek nekron). Paul is Not Denying A General Resurrection by this language, But Emphasizing That Of Believers.” Charles Ellicott’s Commentaries (1865, Vol. II, p. 87) remarks on Philippians 3:11:“‘The resurrection from the dead;’ i.e., as the context suggests, the first resurrection (Rev. xx. 5), when, at the Lord’s coming the dead in Him shall rise first (1 Thessalon. iv. 16), and the quick be caught up to meet Him in the clouds (1 Thess. iv. 17); compare Luke xx. 35. The first resurrection will include only true believers, and will apparently precede the second, that of non-believers and disbelievers, in point of time . . . Any reference here to a merely ethical resurrection (Cocceius) is wholly out of the question.” One of the basic meanings of the word e·xa·na′sta·sis is getting up from bed in the morning; thus it can well represent a resurrection occurring early, otherwise called “the first resurrection.” Rotherham’s translation of Philippians 3:11 reads:“If by any means I may advance to the earlier resurrection which is from among the dead.”
Ben57

Adelaide, Australia

#11 Dec 10, 2011
JWs are AntiChrist wrote:
If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible,
I have never seen any mention by the WTS that the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation. Look back at what I said. I suggested that the NWT needs to be updated in places
Ben57

Adelaide, Australia

#12 Dec 10, 2011
JWs are AntiChrist wrote:
The NWT translates Jn 14:14 as,“If you ask anything in my name, I will do it.” If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it completely omit the word “me” after the phrase “If you ask”, even though the word “me” is in the original Greek. See Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT). If the NWT correctly translated Jn 14:14 from the original Greek and included the word “me” after “ask” in this verse, how would this verse read? How could a person “ask”
The NWT compared a lot of old manuscripts as I pointed out in my first port on this subject. The following ancient texts miss out “me” after “Ask”

Codex Alexandrinus, Gr., fifth cent. C.E., British Museum, H.S., G.S.
Bezae Codices, Gr. and Lat., fifth and sixth cent. C.E., Cambridge, England, G.S.

Old Latin Versions, Itala, second to fourth cent. C.E.; H.S., G.S.

It is true that there are other old manuscripts that include the word “me”. The NWT chose to use the above BECAUSE it agrees with the following two texts.
John 15:16 “Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain: that whatsoever YE SHALL ASK OF THE FATHER IN MY NAME, he may give it you.”
John 16:23 “And in that day ye shall ask me nothing. Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whatsoever YE SHALL ASK THE FATHER IN MY NAME, he will give it you.”(AKJV)
Do U Abide N Christ

United States

#13 Dec 10, 2011
Brooklyn: Justsus Lipsius - galeria

Cut and paste that to your browzer.
The NWT uses the term 'stake,' instead of cross. The president of the WT who was involved in the KIT, inserted a picture,(1). He intentinally lied. Read what he said about what Justisus Liptus said about how many pieces of wood was used to put Jesus to death?... The JW president said one...'Was it only one?

__________

Also you forgot to add how the WT had wrote a letter asking for instructions on what 'God's 'spirits' had said about certain passages? the work of Johannes Greber, and his wife got their theology from invisable 'spirits from the dead! The WT is so guilty getting involved with that guy. also the WT Ghostbuster friend Fenton James Anthony Hort.

Johannes Greber??

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Those in command up in the GnosticTower just love the Memorial. It is the ultimate payoff for them. They have revived an ancient Gnostic ritual of refusing the body and blood of Jesus,
Ben57

Adelaide, Australia

#14 Dec 10, 2011
JWs are AntiChrist wrote:
If the present earth will never be destroyed or depopulated, why does Zeph 1:2-3 say,“I shall without fail finish everything off the surface of the ground,’ is the utterance of Jehovah.‘I shall finish off earthling man... In addition, Isa 65:17 says,“For here I am creating new heavens and a NEW earth, and the former things will not be called to mind…” If the present earth will never be destroyed, why will God be “creating” a “new” earth? Notice that this verse does not say “cleanse”, but “create”. What do the words “create” and “new” mean to you? Similarly, 2Pet 3:10-13 says,“Yet Jehovah’s day will come as a thief, in which the heavens will pass a way with a hissing noise, but the elements being intensely hot will be dissolved, and the earth and the works in it will be discovered. Since all these things are thus to be dissolved, what sort of persons ought you to be… through which [the] heavens being on fire will be dissolved and [the] elements being intensely hot will melt! But there are new heavens and a NEW EARTH that we are awaiting, according to his promise…” How can people live forever in paradise on this present earth, if the earth will “be dissolved” and “melt” and if we are awaiting a “new” earth?
First notice these words as you quote "cut off mankind from the surface of the ground" It is NOT referring to destroying the earth as in the ground we walk on but the people on the earth. The Prophet Zephaniah was writing a warning to the people of the land of Judah that had turned away from worshipping their God. They were to be removed from the land.

continued bellow
Ben57

Adelaide, Australia

#15 Dec 10, 2011
Look at he following texts The first one is very important ,
Hebrews 6” 18 “in order that, through two unchangeable things in which it is impossible for God to lie, we who have fled to the refuge may have strong encouragement to lay hold on the hope set before us.”

Now, God has said that he keeps his word

Isa. 55:8-11:“[The utterance of Jehovah is:] As the heavens are higher than the earth, so my ways are higher than your ways, and my thoughts than your thoughts.. . . MY WORD . . . WILL NOT RETURN TO ME WITHOUT RESULTS, but it will certainly do that in which I have delighted, and it will have certain success in that for which I have sent it.”
Ask yourself each one of the questions below, read the texts keeping the above 2 texts in mind and let the Bible answer your question

WILL EARTH BE DESTROYED ?

What Does The Bible Show To Be God’s Purpose Regarding The Earth?

Matt. 6:10:“Let your kingdom come. Let your will take place, as in heaven, also upon earth.”

Ps. 37:29:“The righteous themselves will possess the earth, and they will reside forever upon it.”

Ecclesiastes 1:4; “ A generation is going, and a generation is coming; but the earth is standing even to time indefinite.”

Psalm 104:5.”He has founded the earth upon its established places; It will not be made to totter to time indefinite, or forever.”

WILL GOD HIMSELF DESTROY THE EARTH BY FIRE?

Does 2 Peter 3:7, 10 (KJ) support that view?“The heavens and the earth, which are now, by the same word are kept in store, reserved unto fire against the day of judgment and perdition [“destruction,” RS] of ungodly men.. . . The day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up [“burned (burnt) up,” RS, JB; “will vanish,” TEV; “will be made manifest,” NAB; “will be laid bare,” NE; “will be discovered,” NW].”(Note: The Codex Sinaiticus and Vatican MS 1209, both of the 4th century C.E., read “be discovered.” Later manuscripts, the 5th-century Codex Alexandrinus and the 16th-century Clementine recension of the Vulgate, read “be burned up.”)

Does Revelation 21:1 (KJ) indicate that our planet will be destroyed?“And I saw a new heaven and a new earth: for the first heaven and the first earth were passed away; and there was no more sea.”
To Be Correct, The Explanation Of These Verses Must Agree With The Context And With The Rest Of The Bible

If these texts (2 Peter 3:7, 10 and Revelation 21:1) mean that the literal planet Earth is to be consumed by fire, then the literal heavens (the stars and other heavenly bodies) are also to be destroyed by fire. Such a literal view, however, conflicts with the assurance contained in such texts as Matthew 6:10, Psalm 37:29 and 104:5, also Proverbs 2:21, 22. Furthermore, what effect would fire have on the already intensely hot sun and stars? So the term “earth” in the above-quoted texts must be understood in a different sense.
At Genesis 11:1, First Kings 2:1,2,

 First Chronicles 16:31, Psalm 96:1, etc., the term “earth” is used in a figurative sense, referring to mankind, to human society. Might that be the case at 2 Peter 3:7, 10 and Revelation 21:1?

continued bellow
Ben57

Adelaide, Australia

#16 Dec 10, 2011
Note that, in the context, at 2 Peter 3:5, 6 (also 2:5, 9), a parallel is drawn with the Flood of Noah’s day, in which wicked human society was destroyed, but Noah and his household, as well as the globe itself, were preserved. Likewise, at 2 Peter 3:7 it says that the ones to be destroyed are “ungodly men.” The view that “the earth” here refers to wicked human society fully agrees with the rest of the Bible, as is illustrated by the texts cited above. It is that symbolic “earth,” or wicked human society, that is “discovered”; that is, Jehovah will sear away as by fire all disguise, exposing the wickedness of ungodly human society and showing it to be worthy of complete destruction. That wicked society of humans is also “the first earth,” referred to at Revelation 21:1 (KJ).

Consistently, Jesus’ expression at Luke 21:33 (“heaven and earth will pass away, but . . . ”) must be understood in the light of the parallel statement at Luke 16:17 (“it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than . . . ”), both of which simply emphasize the impossibility of the situations presented.—See also Matthew 5:18.

WILL THE RIGHTEOUS BE TAKEN TO HEAVEN AND THEN RETURNED TO EARTH AFTER THE WICKED ARE DESTROYED?

Does Revelation 21:2, 3 support that view? It says:“I saw also the holy city, New Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God and prepared as a bride adorned for her husband. With that I heard a loud voice from the throne say:‘Look! The tent of God is with mankind, and he will reside with them, and they will be his peoples. And God himself will be with them.’”(Does the fact that God will “reside” with mankind and “be with them” mean that he will become a fleshly Being? That cannot be, because Jehovah told Moses:“No man may see me and yet live.”[Ex. 33:20] Consistently, then, the members of the New Jerusalem will not return to earth as physical beings. In what sense, then, could God “be with” mankind and how would the New Jerusalem ‘come down out of heaven’? No doubt an indication is found in Genesis 21:1, which says that God “visited” Sarah, blessing her with a son in her old age. Exodus 4:31 tells us that God “visited” Israel by sending Moses as a deliverer. Luke 7:16 says that by means of Jesus’ ministry God “visited” his people.[All from KJ and RS] Other translations use the expression God “turned his attention” to his people [NW] or ‘showed concern’ for them [NE]. So Revelation 21:2, 3 must mean that God will ‘visit,’ or be with, mankind by means of the heavenly New Jerusalem, through which blessings will come to obedient humans.)

Prov. 2:21, 22, KJ:“The upright shall dwell in the land [“on earth,” NE], and the perfect [“blameless men,” NE] shall remain in it. But the wicked shall be cut off from the earth, and the transgressors shall be rooted out of it.”(Notice that it does not say the blameless will return to the earth but that they “shall remain in it.”)

HAS GOD’S ORIGINAL PURPOSE FOR THE EARTH CHANGED?

Gen. 1:27, 28:“God proceeded to create the man in his image, in God’s image he created him; male and female he created them. Further, God blessed them and God said to them:‘Be fruitful and become many and fill the earth and subdue it, and have in subjection the fish of the sea and the flying creatures of the heavens and every living creature that is moving upon the earth.’”(Thus God indicated his purpose to have the earth filled with the offspring of Adam and Eve as caretakers of a global paradise. After God had magnificently designed this earth for human habitation, making it unique among all the planets that man has examined with his telescopes and spaceships, did the Creator simply abandon his purpose, leaving it forever unfulfilled because of Adam’s sin?)

continued bellow
Ben57

Adelaide, Australia

#17 Dec 10, 2011
Isa. 45:18:“This is what Jehovah has said, the Creator of the heavens, He the true God, the Former of the earth and the Maker of it, He the One who firmly established it, who did not create it simply for nothing, who formed it even to be inhabited:‘I am Jehovah, and there is no one else.’”(See also Isaiah 55:10, 11.)

IF NO ONE IS EVER GOING TO DIE IN GOD’S NEW ORDER, HOW WILL ALL THE PEOPLE FIT ON EARTH?

Keep in mind that when God expressed his purpose for the earth he said:“Be fruitful and become many and fill the earth.”(Gen. 1:28) God gave man the ability to procreate, and when His purpose in that regard is fulfilled He can cause procreation to cease on earth.

WHAT KIND OF PEOPLE WILL GOD FAVOR WITH ENDLESS LIFE ON EARTH?

Zeph. 2:3:“Seek Jehovah, all you meek ones of the earth, who have practiced His own judicial decision. Seek righteousness, seek meekness. Probably you may be concealed in the day of Jehovah’s anger.”

Ps. 37:9, 11:“Those hoping in Jehovah are the ones that will possess the earth.. . . The meek ones themselves will possess the earth, and they will indeed find their exquisite delight in the abundance of peace.”

Back to your question, Zephaniah was talking mainly about the faithful Israelites with his warning before Babylon cleared the lad and applies to ALL that follow the Israelites and turn their back on / or do not listen to Jehovah and the warning he is giving today.
Ben57

Adelaide, Australia

#18 Dec 10, 2011
Do U Abide N Christ wrote:
Brooklyn: Justsus Lipsius - galeria
Cut and paste that to your browzer.
The NWT uses the term 'stake,' instead of cross. The president of the WT who was involved in the KIT, inserted a picture,(1). He intentinally lied. Read what he said about what Justisus Liptus said about how many pieces of wood was used to put Jesus to death?... The JW president said one...'Was it only one?
__________
Also you forgot to add how the WT had wrote a letter asking for instructions on what 'God's 'spirits' had said about certain passages? the work of Johannes Greber, and his wife got their theology from invisable 'spirits from the dead! The WT is so guilty getting involved with that guy. also the WT Ghostbuster friend Fenton James Anthony Hort.
Johannes Greber??
Justus Lipsius

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Justus_Lips...

Mt 10:38 And <2532> he <3739> that taketh <2983> (5719) not < 3756> his <846> CROSS <4716>, and <2532> followeth <190> ( 5719) after <3694> me <3450>, is <2076> (5748) not <3756> worthy <514> of me <3450>

See the number next to CROSS here is its meaning from 2 different Bible Greek Dictionaries

4716. &#963;&#964;&#945; &#965;&#961;&#959; &#962; stauros stow-ros’; from the base of 2476; a stake or post (as set upright), i.e.(specifically) a pole or cross (as an instrument of capital punishment); figuratively, exposure to death, i.e. self-denial; by implication, the atonement of Christ:

4716. &#963;&#964;&#945; &#965;&#961;&#959; &#962; stauros; from the same as 2476; an upright stake,

Yes, ones the WTS quoted John 1:1 from Greeber but they did so some time AFTER they rendered John 1:1 in the NWT. They NEVER EVER relied on it or used it as a base for their translation. When I get time I will post a full discussion on John 1:1 showing that it is rendered according to correct Biblical Greek gramma syntax. To say the "Word was God" is one possibility but to say the "Word was a god" is a better rendering and is in line with the context of John chapter 1 where as "Word was God" is out of context with the chapter. I will do that as a new thread.

Have to go for tonight wish I had time right now to address all the misleading statements on this thread, that will have to wait

wallace

Australia

#19 Nov 27, 2012
Ben 57 I love your comments, allot of people have lots to say about the wt but in reality it just shows how much opposition there is against this bible,like Jesus said they hated me they'll hate you also. There's no opposition against any bible like this, satans world hates whats not its own.
UNchained

Kingsport, TN

#20 Nov 27, 2012
wallace wrote:
Ben 57 I love your comments, allot of people have lots to say about the wt but in reality it just shows how much opposition there is against this bible,like Jesus said they hated me they'll hate you also. There's no opposition against any bible like this, satans world hates whats not its own.
Did your persecution meter go off the scale when the blasphemous NWT was being exposed on this thread?

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