Hi MrDave<quoted text>
If Jesus was an angel or archangel, WHY DIDN'T GOD or JESUS or JOHN JUST SAY SO?
Stay tuned for my next new post.
The WTS SUPER GREEK SCHOLAR on th Beliefnet forum has proven without doubt using the JW GREEK MANUSCRIPTS and rules of GREEK GRAMMAR and STRONG'S CONCODANCE that
In John 1:1 the WORD...LOGOS... is synomous with ARCHANGEL..
So reading John 1:1and John 1:14 this way could be considered correct.
"In the beginning was the ARCHANGEL and the ARCHANGEL was with God and the ARCHANGEL was a god"
"and the ARCHANGEL became flesh...."
Knowing what JW really believe about Michael and Jesus, and agreeing with YOUR GREEK EXPERT.
My new question will be John had FOUR chances to say ARCHANGEL, so why didn't he say it
AT LEAST ONCE!!
Unless Jesus wasn't and and "and the WORD was GOD"
For the benefit of JW's, I will bring over ALL HIS JW documentation for any JW who want to dispute your own expert. Remember he plays for your team and seems to be a farily high ranking JW and a major poster and defender of the faith on Beliefnet, you might want to post over there too. I do.
For the record I am not a JW or EX-JW. I also should state that I am sympathetic to some of the JW doctrines and, in particular, their view on the Trinity. I find the Trinity confusing but I am willing to listen to arguments that support it.
I have read your posts in Beliefnet and your interaction with Newtonian re:- the Archangel question and John 1:1(c). From the above post it appears that you are agreeing with Newtonians position that John 1:1(c) should not read The Word was a Archangel as that would be redundant in that Archangel is synomous for Word therefore,it could read The Chief Spokeman was a Chief Messenger. Newtonian also suggested that what John was reminding his readers was that the Word was a deity by saying a god. Is this your understanding of the debate you had with Newtonian -- at least in regards to the limited extent I noted above?
All the best