The Most Accurate & Honest of all Bib...

The Most Accurate & Honest of all Bible Translations- the NWT

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“EXPOSING CHURCHianity!”

Since: Oct 07

Seattle, WA

#1 Mar 20, 2012
God's name put BACK.
No musical chairs; sheol is always sheol, hades always hades, soul always soul.

Verses added to later Bible copies OMITTED.

Theology kept OUT.

English that is current, but not flavored!

It is a Masterpiece!
little lamb

Australia

#2 Mar 20, 2012
Its my favorite translation..but I don't condemn others for using other translation...

I have a sentimental love for the King James..because it was the first translation used to witness to Christ to me...

So may we encourage FAITH in Gods WORD whatever translation you use..
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#3 Mar 20, 2012
The NWT adds the word “[the]” to the phrase “of our God and savior Jesus Christ” in 2Pet 1:1. 2Pet 1:11, 2:20, and 3:18, which contain the same exact phrase in the Greek with the exception that these verses contain the word “lord”(kyrios) instead of the word “God”(Theos), don’t have the word “[the]” added to them. See Greek-English Interlinear. What is the reason for this gross inconsistency in translation of these phrases? How would 2 Pet 1:1 read if it had been translated the same way as 2Pet 1:11, 2:20, and 3:18, and the word “[the]” had not been added? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#4 Mar 20, 2012
The NWT translates the Greek word "esti" as "is" every time it appears in the New Testament (eg, Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc), except in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19 where it is rendered as “means”, even though this word is translated as “is” in the Kingdom Interlinear. Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word "esti" in these verses? If the NWT were consistent and translated the Greek word "esti" as "is" in these verses, what would these verses say?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#5 Mar 20, 2012
If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it alter the word of God by twice adding the words “relation to” in Mt 5:19, when this phrase does not exist in the Greek? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. How would this verse read if the phrase “relation to” had not been added to it and what would this say about who can enter the kingdom of heaven? If only 144,000 people will go to heaven, why does scripture say in this verse that “ANYONE who does them (the commandments) and teaches them…” will be called great “in the kingdom of the heavens.”? What does the word “anyone” mean to you?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#6 Mar 20, 2012
The NWT translates the Greek word “Theos” in Jn 1:1c as “a god”, but translates this same exact Greek word as “God” everywhere else it appears,(eg, Jn 3:2, 3:16, 3:17, 3:33, 3:34, 4:24, 6:27, 8:54, etc), including Jn 20:28 where this word explicitly refers to Jesus. What is the reason for this inconsistency in the translation of “Theos” in Jn 1:1c? If “Theos” was translated as “God” in Jn 1:1c like it is translated everywhere else it appears in the NWT, how would Jn 1:1 read and what would it say about the nature of Christ? Similarly, the Greek word “Theon” is translated in the NWT as “God” in almost every instance (eg, Mt 22:37, Lk 10:27, Jn 1:1b, 8:41, 14:1, 17:3, 1Jn 4:7, 4:12, 5:2, Rev 14:7, etc), but in Jn 10:33 it is translated as “a god”. What is the reason for this inconsistency in the translation of the word “Theon”? If “Theon” was translated as “God” in Jn 10:33, how would this verse read and what would it say about the nature of Christ? What did Jesus say in this passage that made the Jews want to kill him? See Jn 10:30-31. The phrase “Son of God” in theological language is a semitic term which means “having the same nature as God”, or being God, just as the term “Son of man” means “having the same nature as a man”, or being a man. Since blasphemy is one of the few offenses in Jewish law for which a person may be stoned to death, wouldn’t this claim of Christ, that he is the Son of God, qualify as a blasphemous statement to the Jews, and wasn’t this the reason they wanted to kill him by stoning him to death (Jn 10:31, 36-39)?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#7 Mar 20, 2012
The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" () as "I am" every time it appears in the New Testament (eg, Jn 6:35, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been". If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible what is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi" was translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse in which it appears, how would Jn 8:58 read and what would this verse say about the nature of Christ? See Exo 3:14 in every version of the Bible except the NWT. Why is this phrase,“ego eimi” translated as “I am” in the KIT, but “I have been” in the NWT? Since “I am” is present tense, and “I have been” is past tense, which tense is correct? If the “translators” of the NWT were Greek scholars, shouldn’t they have known which tense “ego eimi” is?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#8 Mar 20, 2012
Almost every time the Greek word “ginosko”(Strong’s # 1097) is used in the New Testament, the NWT translates it as “know” or “known”(eg, 1Cor 8:3, Gal 4:9, Jn 10:14, Jn 10:27, etc). However, in Jn 17:3, this same Greek word is rendered as “taking in knowledge of”. What is the reason for the inconsistency of the translation of this word in Jn 17:3 by the NWT? If the NWT were consistent and translated this word in Jn 17:3 the same way it is translated in the other verses in which it appears, how would this verse read? In addition, the Kingdom Interlinear translates this word as “they may be KNOWING” instead of “their taking in knowledge” as it is translated in the NWT. Why the inconsistency in translation between the KIT and the NWT? If this word was translated in this verse like it is translated in the other verses in which it appears, how would this verse read? How could a person come to “know” Jesus Christ unless they have a relationship with him? How could a person have a relationship with Christ unless they communicate with Jesus through prayer?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#9 Mar 20, 2012
If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction between the body and the soul in Mt 10:28? Similarly, if the soul is the body, why does Paul make a distinction between the “spirit and soul and body of you” in 1Thess 5:23? In addition, the NWT renders 2Tim 4:22 as,“The Lord [be] with the spirit you [show]…”even though the Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT) translates the Greek phrase “sou pneuma” as “the spirit of you”. Why is there a difference between the KIT and the NWT rendition of this verse? Why does the NWT add the word “[show]” when it does not appear in the Greek? Wouldn’t the KIT version be a much simpler and straight forward rendition of this verse? If the KIT version is used, what does this verse say about the “spirit” of a person?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#10 Mar 20, 2012
If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it alter the word of God by adding the word “[Son]” in Acts 20:28 when this word does not exist in the Greek? See Gr-Engl Interlinear.
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#11 Mar 20, 2012
In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "[other]" even though it doesn't appear in the original Greek. See Gr-Engl Interlinear. Why does the WTS alter scripture by adding the word “[other]” to this verse? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Exo 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse read if the word "other" had not been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6. If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's name, why did Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted for the sake of his (Jesus') name, instead of Jehovah's (Mt 24:9, Mk 13:13, Lk 21:12,17, Jn 15:21, and Acts 9:16)? If the name "Jehovah" is so important, then why does Acts 4:12 say, "Furthermore, there is no salvation in anyone else, for there is not another name (Jesus Christ vs 10) under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved"? If the teachings of the WTS are correct, would this not have been the logical place for God to have used the name "YHWH" or "Jehovah"?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#12 Mar 20, 2012
The NWT translates Mt 25:46 as,“And these will depart into everlasting cutting-off…”. The Greek word that is translated as “cutting-off” is “kolasis”(Strong # 2851). According to Strong’s Greek dictionary, this word can only mean “correction, punishment, or penalty”, but no reference is made to “cutting-off”. If the word “kolasis” was translated correctly as “correction, punishment, or penalty”, as it should be according to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, how would this verse read?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#13 Mar 20, 2012
If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it alter the written word of God by adding the words “itself” and “[true]” in Eccl 12:7 when these words don’t exist in the Hebrew? How would this verse read without the addition of these words? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6. If what the WTS teaches about the spirit of man is correct, then how can the “spirit” of a man return to God after the body dies and returns to the earth?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#14 Mar 20, 2012
The WTS book You Can Live Forever in Paradise on Earth states on page 147,“Bible evidence shows that in the year 1914 C.E. God’s time arrived for Christ to return and begin ruling.” It also states “In the same way, Christ’s return does not mean that he literally comes back to this earth. Rather, it means that he takes Kingdom power toward this earth and turns his attention to it.” In 1Cor 11:26, Paul writes, "For as often as you eat this loaf and drink this cup, you keep proclaiming the death of the Lord, until he arrives." If Christ “arrived” in 1914, why do Jehovah's Witnesses continue to partake of the bread and wine? Shouldn't they have stopped in 1914?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#15 Mar 20, 2012
In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" () is used in reference to God, it is translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word "proskunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and the same exact word used with reference to Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency in translation? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ read?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#16 Mar 20, 2012
If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it alter the word of God by adding the word “[others]” in Acts 10:36 when this word does not appear in the Greek? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. How would this verse read if the word “[others]” had not been added to it? What does the word “all” mean to you?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#17 Mar 20, 2012
According to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, the Greek word “theotes”(Strong’s # 2320) used only once in the Bible in Col 2:9, is translated as “the state of being God, Godhead”. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it mistranslate this Greek word “theotes” as “divine quality” in Col 2:9, instead of “Godhead”?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#18 Mar 20, 2012
According to Strong’s Greek Dictionary, the Greek word “klao”(Strong’s # 2806) means “to break; used in the NT of the breaking of bread or communion” and the Greek word “artos”(Strong’s # 740) means “food made with flour mixed with water and baked” or “bread”. Jesus himself used these same words “”klao” and “artos” in Lk 22:19 at the Last Supper and Paul also uses these words in 1Cor 11:23-24. In these verses, the NWT translates these words accurately as “broke” and “loaf”. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why then does it translate the Greek phrase “klao artos” of Acts 2:46 and Acts 20:7, as “took their meals” and “have a meal”, instead of the much more accurate “break bread”? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, what is the reason for the inconsistency of the translation of these words between Lk 22:19 and Acts 2:46, 20:7? In Acts 2:46, how often did the early Christians meet to break bread?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#19 Mar 20, 2012
According to Strong’s Hebrew Dictionary, the Hebrew word “ruwach”(Strong’s # 07307) used in Gen 1:2 means “spirit”. If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it mistranslate this word as “active force”? Similarly, in 1 John 4:1, the NWT translates the Greek word “pneuma” as “divine expressions” even though this same Greek word is translated as “spirit” in 1Jn 3:24, 1Jn 4:2,3, and 6. Why the inconsistency in the translation of this word? Isn’t John's whole point here that even though the Spirit's presence in us gives us assurance of God's love, we are not to believe every "spirit" that claims to be from God, but test them by the teachings which their prophets espouse, "because many false prophets have gone out into the world"? Is the NWT obscuring this point in order to avoid the implication that God’s "spirit" is a person rather than a force (just as the demonic "spirits" are personal entities and not impersonal forces). In addition, in 1Tim 4:1, the NWT translates the simple Greek word “pneuma” as “inspired utterance”, instead of “spirit”. What is the reason for this inconsistency in translation of the word “pneuma”? Is it because a straightforward “the spirit says” would too obviously imply the personality of the Holy Spirit?
Cult Defenders are Liars

Lexington, KY

#20 Mar 20, 2012
If the NWT is the most accurate word for word translation of the Bible, why does it translate the very simple Greek phrase “en autos” as “in him” in Col 2:7, Col 2:9, Mt 14:2, Mk 6:14, Lk 23:22, Jn 4:14, Acts 20:10, 1Cor 2:11, Eph 1:10, Col 1:19, Heb 10:38, 1Jn 2:15, 3:5, 3:15, etc. but translates this same Greek phrase as “by means of him” in 2Cor 1:20, 5:21, and Col 2:10,“by relationship with him” in Col 2:11,“in his case” in 2Cor 1:19, 1Jn 2:8, 10, and “in union with him” in Jn 14:11, 2Cor 13:5, Eph 1:4, Phil 3:9, Col 2:6, 2Thess 1:12, 1Jn 1:5, 2:5, 2:27, 2:28, 3:6, 4:13, 4:15, and 4:16? See Gr-Engl Interlinear. What is the reason for the addition of words in these verses and for the inconsistency in translation of this very simple Greek phrase “en autos”? If the NWT was consistent and translated this very simple Greek phrase “en autos” as “in him” in all the above verses, how would they read? Is the WTS trying to obscure the point of the author that the Christian life consists of a supernatural relationship with Christ?

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