Why is it that Jesus NEVER addressed his Father as Jehovah?

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“Quiet Professional”

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#1
Nov 25, 2010
 
In the New Testament, Jesus NEVER addressed the Father as Jehovah, not even once.

If the Jehovah Witnesses are correct that God must always be referred to as Jehovah, then Jesus was way out of line.

When Jesus taught His disciples to pray, He began the sample prayer with, "Our Father."

We are told as Christians to cry out to our God as "Abba, Father" (Romans 8:15, Galatians 4:6).

According to the Greek manuscripts the word Jehovah does not occur a single time in the New Testament.

“The proof is in the pudding!”

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#2
Nov 25, 2010
 

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(Luke 4:17-18). . .So the scroll of the prophet Isaiah was handed him, and he opened the scroll and found the place where it was written: 18 “Jehovah’s spirit is upon me, because he anointed me to declare good news to the poor, he sent me forth to preach a release to the captives and a recovery of sight to the blind, to send the crushed ones away with a release. . .

(Isaiah 61:1-2). . .The spirit of the Sovereign Lord Jehovah is upon me, for the reason that Jehovah has anointed me to tell good news to the meek ones. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to those taken captive and the wide opening [of the eyes] even to the prisoners; 2 to proclaim the year of goodwill on the part of Jehovah and the day of vengeance on the part of our God; to comfort all the mourning ones. . .

So it's clear that Jesus used the divine name, unless you want me to believe that every time Jesus came across the name when reading aloud or quoting scripture he used Father or God, instead of the divine name. I flat out refuse to believe that.

“The proof is in the pudding!”

Since: Aug 09

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#3
Nov 25, 2010
 

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Also in Matthew 4:4 Jesus quotes Deut 8:3 where the divine name is present.
peachmellon

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#4
Nov 25, 2010
 

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Hello Knight Templar.. Thank you so much. I knew about this for a while and did not want to say anything. Just wanting to see if anyone else would ever notice. After reading the Scriptures I too started thinking of the prayer. Jesus told us to pray this way. "Our Fater" Only a few of us know of this. For years I said to myself I never disrespected my fleshly father by calling him by his first name, then why would I call my Creator, by his first name.
Thank you so much
Knight Templar wrote:
In the New Testament, Jesus NEVER addressed the Father as Jehovah, not even once.
If the Jehovah Witnesses are correct that God must always be referred to as Jehovah, then Jesus was way out of line.
When Jesus taught His disciples to pray, He began the sample prayer with, "Our Father."
We are told as Christians to cry out to our God as "Abba, Father" (Romans 8:15, Galatians 4:6).
According to the Greek manuscripts the word Jehovah does not occur a single time in the New Testament.
Bible Jehova laws not GB

Dundalk, MD

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#5
Nov 25, 2010
 

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original tetragram IHWH in greek koine language of NT was used;
(Gen 22;14)Hebr 10;10-12.(Ex 15;26) James 5;14-15.( Exodus 17;15), 1Cor 15;57.(Ex31;13) Eph 5;26.Judges 6;24) John 6;24.(1Sam 1;3) James 5;4-7.(Psalm 23;1)John 10;11.(Psalm 95;6) John 1;3.(Jer 23;6) 1Cor 1;30.(Ezek 48;35) Mat 28;20 with conections to Old Testament
Jw NWT falsely separate this name only to Creator as ONE
also JESUS IS A PART OF TETRAGRAM IHWH and SHUA means"a cry for help"or"a saving cry",that is to say,shout to God when in need of help.....also IHWH under of all those names is only ONE IHWH=JESUS=IHWH-SHUA....JESUS AND IHWH(ENGLISH JEHOVA)IS SAME NOT TWO SEPARATE DISTINCTIVE INFINITE PERSONALITIES
TOM ROOK

Gastonia, NC

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#6
Nov 25, 2010
 

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Knight Templar wrote:
In the New Testament, Jesus NEVER addressed the Father as Jehovah, not even once.
If the Jehovah Witnesses are correct that God must always be referred to as Jehovah, then Jesus was way out of line.
When Jesus taught His disciples to pray, He began the sample prayer with, "Our Father."
We are told as Christians to cry out to our God as "Abba, Father" (Romans 8:15, Galatians 4:6).
According to the Greek manuscripts the word Jehovah does not occur a single time in the New Testament.
SIGH ..........
The explanation is QUITE SIMPLE .... during that time period and even now among some Jews, it was considered disrespectful to use God's name. A Jewish superstition of course... but deeply ingrained in the culture to the extent that NO ONE except perhaps the Jewish Priests talking among themselves would use it.
For Jesus to violate this "convention" would have been the ROUGH equivalent of calling black people the "N" word.
Their superstition was not based in reality, but it was very strongly entrenched in the culture. So much so that vestiges of it exist in Jewish culture and language even today.
The Jewish idea was that we as imperfect persons were so wretched that if we pronounced Jehovah's name, it would be disrespectful to the point of blasphemy, as the term is commonly misunderstood.
Even now when I am on IRC talking about religious topics in open forum, Jews who speak of God say "G_d", typed out. I have seen this perhaps three hundred times over the years.
That is why a study of scripture HAS to have an understanding of the history and culture of the times .... without it we have a tendency to, no... I will correct that... we have the HABIT of forming opinions based on erroneous perception.
Superstitions make their way into the common language all the time... like referring to a Hurricane as an "Act of God". Your homeowner's insurance policy may even have legal language to that effect.
P.S. For those in Rio Linda, California ... a Hurricane is NOT an "Act of God".
.
Blaise

East Orange, NJ

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#7
Nov 25, 2010
 
Duh-boy wrote:
Also in Matthew 4:4 Jesus quotes Deut 8:3 where the divine name is present.
The Divine Name That Will Endure Forever. In this booklet the Society levels a very serious charge that the early church removed God's name from the New Testament. We would like to test the Watchtower's theory and verify the outcome of such a serious charge.

On pages 23 & 24 of the booklet the Society admits that we do not have the original manuscripts of the New Testament but we have thousands of copies of the originals.

.... Keep in mind these were not translations of the Bible, but were copies of the original Greek.

does any jw understand this statement?
we do not have the original manuscripts of the New Testament but we have thousands of copies of the originals.
Blaise

East Orange, NJ

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#8
Nov 25, 2010
 

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Duh-boy wrote:
Also in Matthew 4:4 Jesus quotes Deut 8:3 where the divine name is present.
How did a group of men manage to remove Jehovah's name from all of the available manuscripts of the original Greek new testament? To do this they would have had to seize and change every single copy that was floating around throughout all of the known world, since the Watchtower admits that there is not a single copy of the Greek manuscripts that contain Jehovah's full name.

These men would have had to go from door to door and confiscate every single copy of every single new testament book. How is it that Jehovah God faithfully protected his Old Testament word throughout thousands of years when men tried to destroy it, yet was powerless to protect the new testament manuscripts from corruption for even a few hundred years? And if Jehovah was powerless to protect even his name, what else did these unscrupulous men remove? Once you admit that it is possible to tamper with all of the available manuscripts, the reliability of the new testament is shattered. In contrast, the faithfulness of Jehovah God to protect all of his sovereign word is evident.

The faithfulness of the original Greek text can be verified by comparing copies produced at different times from different original copies and made by different copyists. In addition Jehovah God caused so many copies of his word to remain that any human error incorporated into the text is evident by comparing the copies
Truth Stands alone

Hayward, CA

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#9
Nov 25, 2010
 

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Well, considering that the word "Jehovah" is based on a series of misunderstandings made over a thousand years after the death of Jesus why would anyone even feel the need to ask such a question especially since the closest translation of the word in Hebrew means "God of mischief"

It is either ignorance or blasphemy on the part of the Jehovah's Witnesses. Ignorance if they haven't found out and blasphemy if they accept the governing body's statement that it is ok due to the name being common usage and continue to use the word as the name of GOD.
Blaise

East Orange, NJ

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#10
Nov 25, 2010
 

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Duh-boy wrote:
Also in Matthew 4:4 Jesus quotes Deut 8:3 where the divine name is present.
Does the Watchtower's theory foster doubt in the Bible's reliability?

In part one we discussed the Watchtower's theory that unscrupulous men in the early church removed Jehovah's name from all the copies of the Greek New Testament. We discussed that to believe this theory one must deny Jehovah's sovereign ability to protect his word through the ages. Believing the Watchtower's theory would not result in faith in the New Testament but foster a doubt in its reliability. After all, if men were able to completely wipe out Jehovah's name from the New Testament, then what else did they remove or what did they add? Far from producing trust in the accuracy of the New Testament, the Watchtower's theory only opens the door to distrust and all kinds of abuse. As Christians, we maintain the accuracy of the entire Bible. We also trust the faithfulness of the God who produced his word and sovereignly protected it throughout the centuries.

Is Jesus the reason?

But the question still remains, if Jehovah God is Sovereign over his inspired word and faithfully protected its transmission to us today, why doesn't the Greek manuscript contain God's name? We believe the answer is found in the words of Jesus Himself. In John chapter 17 Jesus' prayer to the Father is recorded. Verse 11 in the New World Translation says, "...I am coming to you. Holy Father, watch over them on account of your own name which you have given me..." Jesus said that God's own name had been given to him! What is God's own name? If you are a Jehovah's Witness, you are taught that God's own name is Jehovah. Although the Society admits in their booklet The Divine Name That Will Endure Forever on page 15 that the name Jesus means Jehovah is Salvation, they never teach their followers that the Bible says that God's own name has been given to Jesus. How did Jehovah give his own name to his son? Hebrews 1:4 tells us in the New World Translation, "So he has become better than the angels, to the extent that he has inherited a name more excellent than theirs." Jesus inherited his name from his father! No angel could inherit the name Jehovah, and Hebrews chapter one certainly refutes the Watchtower's teaching that Jesus was created as an angel.
little lamb

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#11
Nov 25, 2010
 

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Still does not nullify the commandment to Baptize people in THE NAME OF THE FATHER..

simple really. Obey jesus commandment
Indianspice

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#12
Nov 25, 2010
 

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little lamb wrote:
Still does not nullify the commandment to Baptize people in THE NAME OF THE FATHER..
simple really. Obey jesus commandment
what did jesus mean when he commanded baptise in the "NAME OF THE HOLY SPIRIT" little lamb? whats holy spirit's name?
little lamb

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#13
Nov 25, 2010
 

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Indianspice wrote:
<quoted text>
what did jesus mean when he commanded baptise in the "NAME OF THE HOLY SPIRIT" little lamb? whats holy spirit's name?
[spirit of] TRUTH...which the world does not know nor can receive
Indianspice

Mumbai, India

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#14
Nov 25, 2010
 
little lamb wrote:
<quoted text>
[spirit of] TRUTH...which the world does not know nor can receive
Acts 19:1 While Apollos was at Corinth, Paul took the road through the interior and arrived at Ephesus. There he found some disciples 2 and asked them,“Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?”
They answered,“No, we have not even heard that there is a Holy Spirit.”

3 So Paul asked,“Then what baptism did you receive?”

“John’s baptism,” they replied.

4 Paul said,“John’s baptism was a baptism of repentance. He told the people to believe in the one coming after him, that is, in Jesus.” 5 On hearing this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. 6 When Paul placed his hands on them, the Holy Spirit came on them, and they spoke in tongues and prophesied. 7 There were about twelve men in all.
I left

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#15
Nov 26, 2010
 

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Why didn't Jesus Call his Father by His first name???

Can anyone here honestly say, that they 'ever,' addressed their father by his first name. whenever they asked to use the car on friday night???

Addressing him by his 'first name???' That would have really shown respect, ya. Cased closed.

Is it any wonder why I left?
Blaise

East Orange, NJ

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#16
Nov 26, 2010
 

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I left wrote:
Why didn't Jesus Call his Father by His first name???
Can anyone here honestly say, that they 'ever,' addressed their father by his first name. whenever they asked to use the car on friday night???
Addressing him by his 'first name???' That would have really shown respect, ya. Cased closed.
Is it any wonder why I left?
good question let me add some more to it.

If Jehovah wants us to use his personal name when we pray, why didn’t Jesus use it when he gave us the model prayer—instead of saying “Our Father”?

Watchtower response:
:..we must keep in mind that names then had real meaning and were not just ‘labels’ to identify an individual as today.…Moses’ going to the Israelites in the ‘name’ of the One who sent him meant being the representative of that One, and the greatness of the authority with which Moses would speak would be determined by or be commensurate with that name and what it represented.…we see at once that to know Jehovah’s name is something very different from knowing the four letters of which it is composed. It is to know by experience that Jehovah really is what his name declares him to be( page 12 of volume 2 of the Insight books)
T Price

Ankeny, IA

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#17
Apr 29, 2011
 
Jesus did use Jehovah's name. Whenever you see LORD in all capital, the Divine name the Tetragramaton has been removed. No name appears in the Bible more. Check prefixes of your Bible and it should make reference too the change. " Hallowed be thy name" means to set apart to make Holy. The name appears over some 7 thousand times in Hebrew and Greek scriptures. And was removed. The actual word Lord appears only some 69 times in the original text. This the reason it is written all caps and just L cap.

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