Where does Jesus say specifically in the scriptures that he actually was the one, or one of, the other person(S) in: "...Let ( Us ) make man in ( Our ) image..." by actually quoting that specific passage and directly applying it, i.e., Genesis 1:26,(or Genesis 3:22), to him-self?Hello Dave,
Thanks for the response.<quoted text>
I have just a couple of points...
1) Most of 1st Corinthians deals with the resurrection of physical bodies, so any immortality pertains to the subject at hand. The soul appears to be handled differently.
2) I used this verse to show immortality does exist for created creatures, which was just a direct challenge to your statement to the contrary.
3) "Life without parole" - Isn't that what the "Lake of Fire is"? Revelation says that the beast and the false prophet were thrown into the lake of fire ALIVE... When you get to Revelation 20:10, Satan is ALSO thrown into the lake of fire where the beast and the false prophet ARE (present tense)- but this is AFTER the millennium and the beast and the false prophet are still there in the present tense 1,000 years later.
But with all of this said, who is the "US" in Genesis 3:22 that "know right from wrong and live forever"?
I qualify that question with the condition that there is no attempt at twisting any if, "...but's, sort of's, maybes, kind ofs, nearly, almost..." texts as a supposed answer. He either does, or he doesn't.
So, Bob, you have two options:
[1.] Yes or
Also, "...LET ( US )..." go further to the real subject at hand,(i.e. three persons in the "...Us..."), and ask can that legitimately be said of the holy spirit, and/or as well?
Again you have two chances to be honest with: "...US..." and the rest of the forum. Either:
[1.] Yes or
"...WE..." await your reply.
Additionally, what apostle says that the holy spirit: "...was with..." or had a --- direct conversation --- with either the Father or the Son at Genesis 1:26 or Genesis 3:22?
For there actually to be, scripturally taught, that: "...THREE PERSON(S)..." were in fact involved in those two particular conversations?
In fact: "...LET ( US )..." extend that to any of the: "...( Us )..." passages in the scriptures?
Or are you relying on post-biblical traditions that say this is the case?
I.e. again relying on whats NOT in the Bible, in contrast to what's really written and said there.