Who Is Allah?

Who Is Allah?

There are 256486 comments on the The Brussels Journal story from Aug 24, 2007, titled Who Is Allah?. In it, The Brussels Journal reports that:

“Allah is a very beautiful word for God. Shouldn't we all say that from now on we will name God Allah? [...] What does God care what we call him?”

From the desk of Soeren Kern on Fri, 2007-08-24 11:56 Europeans love to mock the salience of religion in American society. via The Brussels Journal

Join the discussion below, or Read more at The Brussels Journal.

Buford

Humble, TX

#145194 Aug 26, 2012
bmz wrote:
<quoted text>
I was talking about the story in John 7:52-8:11, Buford
You made an unsupported allegation. Can you convict Jesus of sin?
Buford

Humble, TX

#145195 Aug 26, 2012
bmz wrote:
<quoted text>
I take Isaiah 61:1 to mean: "The mercy or the blessings of the Sovereign LORD is on me, because the LORD has anointed me to preach good news to the poor. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim freedom for the captives and release from darkness for the prisoners."
And for 2 Corinthians 3:17, I find it against what Jesus said.
Jesus told the Samaritan woman at the well that the LORD is spirit.
Where did this 'the Spirit of the LORD' come from?
Plaese advise CARM about this gross error and fabrication.
It doesn't matter what you take it to mean, dishonest one and smear merchant. What matters is what is actually WRITTEN in the original Hebrew and how accurately it is translated into other languages, like English, but perhaps you are like the millions of Muslims who reject as corrupt any translation of the Tanakh that doesn't comport with what YOU want it to mean. I take it back. You ARE just like that.

http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt1061.htm
Hebrew to English.

Isaiah 61:1 The spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to bring good tidings unto the humble; He hath sent me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the eyes to them that are bound;

Since: Feb 12

Location hidden

#145196 Aug 26, 2012
Buford wrote:
<quoted text>
Isaiah 61:1 The Spirit of the Sovereign LORD is on me, because the LORD has anointed me to preach good news to the poor. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim freedom for the captives and release from darkness for the prisoners.
2 Corinthians 3:17 Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
See: http://carm.org/holy-spirit
Would you say for Isaiah 61:1 the "Spirit" of the LORD is a person and is on another person? How can one person be upon another, without getting scatalogical, please? Kindly explain, if you will, how or in what manner a spirit can be upon a person. Thank you. Btw, regarding 2 Corinthians 3:17, when it says the Lord is the Spirit, how do you work it out that soul/spirit are similar if not the same, yet the spirit leaves the body upon death and goes back to God, but can be upon someone as the Spirit of the LORD?
Buford

Humble, TX

#145197 Aug 26, 2012
bmz wrote:
Do you seriously believe that Jesus spoke so much in one go, uninterrupted?
The above passage has one serious point to ponder:
It means no one heard any voice from the heaven, when he came out of the water.
Clueless one,

To whom was Jesus speaking in the passage I cited.
Buford

Humble, TX

#145198 Aug 26, 2012
bmz wrote:
Please read again, what I wrote:
"Beg the Holy Spirit to give you some inspiration, if it can, provided it exists". I call it an It for the sake of discussions. It is neither a HE nor a SHE.
Is the Lord an IT?

2 Corinthians 3:17 Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
bmz

Since: Mar 08

Location hidden

#145199 Aug 26, 2012
Buford wrote:
<quoted text>You made an unsupported allegation. Can you convict Jesus of sin?
If that story is true, then surely Jesus can be convicted of sin for breaking the Law by not casting the first stone.

There is another problem in that story. Since he made a pre-condition that he who had no sin, should cast the first stone, he was under the obligation of the Law to cast the first stone himself, if he thought he was not sinless.

The hesitation on his part bothers me.

It is quite obvious that he considered all those Jews sinful, not sinless.

So, yes, in that sense, I can convict him.

However, I have some good news for you to save him from this accusation of being sinful.

Relax! The story is disgraceful, a hoax and absurd! It cannot be found in any ancient manuscripts. You know that. Don't you?

We do not know which John among Johns, who wrote John, made it up.

Thanks for bringing that up. Hope this helped a lot.

Since: Feb 12

Location hidden

#145200 Aug 26, 2012
Buford wrote:
<quoted text>You made an unsupported allegation. Can you convict Jesus of sin?
I've heard some do, thus teaching that he can be eliminated from position of being the messiah. But another question can be: is it possible for a person to be without sin and yet not be God?
bmz

Since: Mar 08

Location hidden

#145201 Aug 26, 2012
Buford wrote:
<quoted text>Clueless one,
To whom was Jesus speaking in the passage I cited.
To who else but Jews.

I was referring to this in your post number 145182:

"His voice you have never heard, his form you have never seen, "
bmz

Since: Mar 08

Location hidden

#145202 Aug 26, 2012
Buford wrote:
<quoted text>Is the Lord an IT?
2 Corinthians 3:17 Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is freedom.
According to Jesus, the LORD is spirit. The LORD is not the Spirit. If the LORD were the Spirit, then there was no need for the Holy Spirit besides the LORD.

The words 'the Spirit of the LORD' does not impress me. It gives rise another besides the LORD.

If the LORD were a man, it would have been a different case. Thank the LORD, that is not the case.

The Holy Spirit of Christianity is nothing but simply the power, the force, the blessing, the mercy and the wisdom that works on the anointed ones and the righteous.
bmz

Since: Mar 08

Location hidden

#145203 Aug 26, 2012
Buford wrote:
Is the Lord an IT?
I don't know. Haven't seen, so no comments.

Since: Feb 12

Location hidden

#145204 Aug 26, 2012
bmz wrote:
<quoted text>
If that story is true, then surely Jesus can be convicted of sin for breaking the Law by not casting the first stone.
There is another problem in that story. Since he made a pre-condition that he who had no sin, should cast the first stone, he was under the obligation of the Law to cast the first stone himself, if he thought he was not sinless.
The hesitation on his part bothers me.
It is quite obvious that he considered all those Jews sinful, not sinless.
So, yes, in that sense, I can convict him.
However, I have some good news for you to save him from this accusation of being sinful.
Relax! The story is disgraceful, a hoax and absurd! It cannot be found in any ancient manuscripts. You know that. Don't you?
We do not know which John among Johns, who wrote John, made it up.
Thanks for bringing that up. Hope this helped a lot.
You tell the truth there, bmz. It is obviously a fabrication and added to the text of John’s Gospel. Not only upon reading it does it not make sense because of what Jesus says regarding sin in reference to making the accusation against the adulteress, but these verses are not found in the Sinaitic Manuscript or the Vatican Manuscript No. 1209, though they do appear in the sixth-century Codex Bezae and later Greek manuscripts. They are omitted, however, by most of the early versions. It is evident that they are not part of John’s Gospel. One group of Greek manuscripts places this passage at the end of John’s Gospel; another group puts it after Luke 21:38, supporting the conclusion that it is a spurious and uninspired text.
Skeptic

Bethlehem, PA

#145205 Aug 26, 2012
bmz wrote:
<quoted text>
First a question: Who did the Holy Spirit pray to?
Can you show us all the disciples and followers standing before Jesus, praying to him as one prays to God?
Nobody prayed to him. You can see Peter and disciples worshipping and praying ONLY to the LORD Almighty in the Temple through the Acts lens.
LMAO!
Muslims are Godless.
Muslims are crazy people that don't know who God is.
They are screwed up in the mind.
Muslims kill for a false God that don't even exist.
Your questions are based on your ungodly belief in a god that does not exist.
The God Almighty is Jesus Christ.
The Jews screwed up in not believing Jesus as to he said he was, and Muslims were not even Muslims in the time of Gods visitation on earth.
For over 600 years as the records show Muslims paid no attention to the historical events around them.
Muslims were to busy worshiping false gods and idols.
So shame on you Muslim for blasphemy against the God Almighty.
It is pitiful that these desert pagans wish to disgrace God by putting God as one of their pagan idols.
bmz

Since: Mar 08

Location hidden

#145206 Aug 26, 2012
Buford wrote:
<quoted text>It doesn't matter what you take it to mean, dishonest one and smear merchant. What matters is what is actually WRITTEN in the original Hebrew and how accurately it is translated into other languages, like English, but perhaps you are like the millions of Muslims who reject as corrupt any translation of the Tanakh that doesn't comport with what YOU want it to mean. I take it back. You ARE just like that.
http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt1061.htm
Hebrew to English.

Isaiah 61:1 The spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to bring good tidings unto the humble; He hath sent me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the eyes to them that are bound;
See, Buford, the spirit of the LORD GOD was upon Isaiah because he was anointed. It does not mean that the spirit of God hovered over him or the spirit of God landed upon him.

It was the LORD's mercy, compassion, knowledge and wisdom upon Isaiah.

Now, coming to the Tanakh and its genuine translations, do you honestly see a triune God predicted or promised or prophesied? Obviously, no. Right?
bmz

Since: Mar 08

Location hidden

#145207 Aug 26, 2012
Skeptic wrote:
<quoted text>L..........s.
Can you please try to answer this?

First a question: Who did the Holy Spirit pray to?

Can you show us all the disciples and followers standing before Jesus, praying to him as one prays to God?

Nobody prayed to him. You can see Peter and disciples worshipping and praying ONLY to the LORD Almighty in the Temple through the Acts lens.
bmz

Since: Mar 08

Location hidden

#145208 Aug 26, 2012
NotQuiter wrote:
<quoted text>
You tell the truth there, bmz. It is obviously a fabrication and added to the text of John’s Gospel. Not only upon reading it does it not make sense because of what Jesus says regarding sin in reference to making the accusation against the adulteress, but these verses are not found in the Sinaitic Manuscript or the Vatican Manuscript No. 1209, though they do appear in the sixth-century Codex Bezae and later Greek manuscripts. They are omitted, however, by most of the early versions. It is evident that they are not part of John’s Gospel. One group of Greek manuscripts places this passage at the end of John’s Gospel; another group puts it after Luke 21:38, supporting the conclusion that it is a spurious and uninspired text.
Thank you, NQ.

That story is actually a crime against Jesus. It is slanderous. Some overzealous scribe fitted it in later.

I am glad to know that you do read and research.

Have a nice day. For me it is time to go to sleep.
Skeptic

Bethlehem, PA

#145209 Aug 26, 2012
bmz wrote:
<quoted text>
According to Jesus, the LORD is spirit. The LORD is not the Spirit. If the LORD were the Spirit, then there was no need for the Holy Spirit besides the LORD.
The words 'the Spirit of the LORD' does not impress me. It gives rise another besides the LORD.
If the LORD were a man, it would have been a different case. Thank the LORD, that is not the case.
The Holy Spirit of Christianity is nothing but simply the power, the force, the blessing, the mercy and the wisdom that works on the anointed ones and the righteous.
Your mind is screwed up by your pagan prophet Mohammed.
Muslims have no right to claim the God of the Bible is one of their pagan gods.
Mohammed screwed up the mind of Muslims, and you BMZ of Singapore is a prime example of how the Muslim mind is screwed up.
Go back to the desert and worship your pagan idols.
All the violence in the world today is the fault if Muslims for falsely accepting their pagan man Mohammed as a prophet of God.
God Almighty is an honest, and truthful God that condemns the like's of Mohammed to hell.
Buford

Humble, TX

#145210 Aug 26, 2012
bmz wrote:
See, Buford, the spirit of the LORD GOD was upon Isaiah because he was anointed. It does not mean that the spirit of God hovered over him or the spirit of God landed upon him.
It was the LORD's mercy, compassion, knowledge and wisdom upon Isaiah.
Now, coming to the Tanakh and its genuine translations, do you honestly see a triune God predicted or promised or prophesied? Obviously, no. Right?
Thus saith the LORD!

Since: Feb 12

Location hidden

#145211 Aug 26, 2012
bmz wrote:
<quoted text>
I don't know. Haven't seen, so no comments.
Hi, bmz. I've been looking through the scriptures, and came across this one, but I'm sure I'll come across others of interest. Regarding the use of the term 'spirit,' and linking it to a person, one could well wonder why, if the spirit can be a person, John, the son of Zechariah and Elizabeth, was prophesied to become "strong in spirit." what spirit was that? His spirit?(John's) or the spirit of God? or the third person of the socalled trinity spirit? Luke 1:80, regarding John: "And the child grew and became strong in spirit, and he was in the wilderness until the day of his public appearance to Israel." Perhaps Buford has an answer.

Since: Feb 12

Location hidden

#145212 Aug 26, 2012
Buford wrote:
<quoted text>Thus saith the LORD!
Well, but the Bible does say that John grew stronger in the spirit. And that John's father, Zechariah, was "filled with Holy Spirit." So would a say a person can be filled with another person? Luke 1:67: "And his father Zechariah was filled with the Holy Spirit and prophesied,"
Skeptic

Bethlehem, PA

#145213 Aug 26, 2012
NotQuiter wrote:
<quoted text>
You tell the truth there, bmz. It is obviously a fabrication and added to the text of John’s Gospel. Not only upon reading it does it not make sense because of what Jesus says regarding sin in reference to making the accusation against the adulteress, but these verses are not found in the Sinaitic Manuscript or the Vatican Manuscript No. 1209, though they do appear in the sixth-century Codex Bezae and later Greek manuscripts. They are omitted, however, by most of the early versions. It is evident that they are not part of John’s Gospel. One group of Greek manuscripts places this passage at the end of John’s Gospel; another group puts it after Luke 21:38, supporting the conclusion that it is a spurious and uninspired text.
How dare you insult Jesus Christ that is the visible image of God the Father, saying that God is a sinner.
Prove that Jesus Christ is not the Word of God incarnate?
You babble with your mouth in a Satanic evil way blaspheming God.

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