How can a gay be a Christian??

“God Loves Ilks!”

Since: Feb 08

Location hidden

#5156 Jul 14, 2013
Type 6: A male soldier and a female prisoner of war: Numbers 31:1-18 describes how the army of the ancient Israelites killed every adult Midianite male in battle. Moses then ordered the slaughter in cold blood of most of the captives, including all of the male children who numbered about 32,000. Only the lives of 32,000 women - all virgins -- were spared. Some of the latter were given to the priests as slaves. Most were taken by the Israeli soldiers as captives of war. Deuteronomy 21:11-14 describes how each captive woman would shave her head, pare her nails, be left alone to mourn the loss of her families, friends, and freedom. After a full lunar month had passed -- about 29.5 days -- they would be required to submit to their owners sexually, as a wife. It is conceivable that in a few cases, a love bond might have formed between the soldier and his captive(s). However, in most cases we can assume that the woman had to submit sexually against her will; that is, she was continually raped.

Type 7: Polygynous marriage: A man would leave his family of origin and join with his first wife. Then, as finances allowed, he would marry as many additional women as he desired and could afford. The new wives would join the man and his other wives in an already established household. Polygyny -- the marriage of one man and multiple women -- was practiced by members of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, the Mormons, until the practice was suspended, a least temporarily, in the late 19th century. It is still practiced by separated fundamentalist Mormon groups which have left and been excommunicated from the main Mormon church.

There are many references to polygynous marriages in the Bible:

Lamech, in Genesis 4:19, became the first known polygynist. He had two wives.

From the historical record, it is known that Herod the Great (73 to 4 BCE) had nine wives.

We have been unable to find references to polyandrous marriages in the Bible -- unions involving one woman and more than one man. It is unlikely that many existed because of the distinctly inferior status given to women; they were often treated as property in the Hebrew Scriptures.

Type 8: A male and female slave: Exodus 21:4 indicates that a slave owner could assign one of his female slaves to one of his male slaves as a wife. There is no indication that women were consulted during this type of transaction. The arrangement would probably involve rape in most cases. In the times of the Hebrew Scriptures, Israelite women who were sold into slavery by their fathers were slaves forever. Men, and women who became slaves by another route, were limited to serving as slaves for seven years. When a male slave left his owner, the marriage would normally be terminated; his wife would stay behind, with any children that she had. He could elect to stay a slave if he wished to remain with his family.
http://www.religioustolerance.org/mar_bibl0a....
little lamb

Australia

#5157 Jul 14, 2013
Thank God Jesus cleared up the matter

He tells us ' A man will leave his parents for his wife and the TWO will become one flesh'

So Jesus as CHRIST..the ANOINTED KING..

Tells us in all scriptures including the one the homosexuals wrote for themselves that ..There is only ONE WIFE for ONE HUSBAND

And the TWO [ not three or forty] become ONE FLESH.

Since: Jun 07

Location hidden

#5158 Jul 14, 2013
little lamb wrote:
God allowed it ...
After all sin and death came into the world through one man and thus death spread to all men....
I am quite sure that you have heard of personal responsibility and accountability. But then again, it is probably much easier to blame everything on Adam, right? By the way, this not something that God claimed, but rather Paul, right?
little lamb wrote:
And in breaking Gods Law came the curse.
And don't forget you are on this thread to encourage the breaking of Gods Law on men laying with men the same as a woman...encouraging men to become sexual slaves to other men.
you are encouraging the slave trade of men using other men...
God’s law prohibited an isyh (man) from lying with a zakar (sacred male) to worship another God, if you are truly seeking the truth.
little lamb

Maribyrnong, Australia

#5159 Jul 14, 2013
gundee123 wrote:
<quoted text>
I am quite sure that you have heard of personal responsibility and accountability. But then again, it is probably much easier to blame everything on Adam, right?
<quoted text>
Sin and death came into the world through one mans sin Adam...

Another way of saying you can trace your genetic weaknesses and sickness back to your first parents..unless you don't believe people carry genetic weaknesses???
gundee123 wrote:
<quoted text>God’s law prohibited an isyh (man) from lying with a zakar (sacred male) to worship another God, if you are truly seeking the truth.
I believe you will find Jesus actually says

Matthew 19:5 and said,'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'?

That is one wife one man ...

So both covenants say the same thing , and we are also told in genesis... Genesis 2:24

That is why a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife, and they become one flesh.

Laying with anything else outside marriage is called 'fornication'..
little lamb

Maribyrnong, Australia

#5160 Jul 14, 2013
gundee123 wrote:
<quoted text>
I am quite sure that you have heard of personal responsibility and accountability. But then again, it is probably much easier to blame everything on Adam, right? By the way, this not something that God claimed, but rather Paul, right?
<quoted text>
God’s law prohibited an isyh (man) from lying with a zakar (sacred male) to worship another God, if you are truly seeking the truth.
All of us who follow Christ must realize he says

That a man will leave his mother and father , and him and his wife , will become ONE FLESH...

New Testament, "&#947;&#965; &#957;&#942;" is always used for "wife", but it is also used for "woman".

he has never said a man 'an&#275;r', will leave his mother and father and he with another man 'an&#275;r,' will become one flesh..that is 'pornea' fornication.

Its an 'an&#275;r' shall leave his mother and father and he and his "&#947;&#965; &#957;&#942;
will become one flesh....
little lamb

Maribyrnong, Australia

#5161 Jul 14, 2013
Alright I will write it clearer

All of us who follow Christ must realize he says

That a man will leave his mother and father , and him and his wife , will become ONE FLESH...

New Testament, "yuvn" " is always used for "wife", but it is also used for "woman".

he has never said a man ' will leave his mother and father and he with another man 'aner ' will become one flesh..that is 'pornea' fornication.

Its an 'aner' shall leave his mother and father and he and his "yuvn'
will become one flesh....

Since: Jun 07

Location hidden

#5164 Jul 20, 2013
little lamb wrote:
Sin and death came into the world through one mans sin Adam...
If I may very respectfully ask, "Is this assertion based on any empirical evidence or is it based on a belief system?"
little lamb wrote:
Another way of saying you can trace your genetic weaknesses and sickness back to your first parents..unless you don't believe people carry genetic weaknesses???
With all due respect, please know that my arguments are not based on any particular belief system, but rather empirical evidence.
little lamb wrote:
I believe you will find Jesus actually says
Matthew 19:5 and said,'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'?
Please know that Jesus is simply quoting what Adam had said at Gen 2:24. However, I find it very interesting that Adam would make such a statement, especially since there were no parents available when it allegedly said this, right?
little lamb wrote:
That is one wife one man ...
So both covenants say the same thing , and we are also told in genesis... Genesis 2:24
That is why a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife, and they become one flesh.
Laying with anything else outside marriage is called 'fornication'..
“Did you know that Eve was not Adam’s first wife, according to Jewish folklore,” if you do not mind my asking? At any rate, physical fornication is sexual intercourse between a betrothed wife and another man, whereas spiritual fornication is worshiping another god other than the God of Israel.

Since: Jun 07

Location hidden

#5165 Jul 20, 2013
little lamb wrote:
Alright I will write it clearer
All of us who follow Christ must realize he says
That a man will leave his mother and father , and him and his wife , will become ONE FLESH...
New Testament, "yuvn" " is always used for "wife", but it is also used for "woman".
he has never said a man ' will leave his mother and father and he with another man 'aner ' will become one flesh..that is 'pornea' fornication.
Its an 'aner' shall leave his mother and father and he and his "yuvn'
will become one flesh....
Perhaps, you are not aware that there is no Hebrew word that properly translates as wife. You see, the word “'ishshah” really means woman. And the Greek word “gyne” actually means woman. And if you disagree, please tell us if the word “gyne”cologist means wife doctor or woman doctor, if you would be so kind.

Now if you would like to delve deeper, please know that the word wife simply meant the property of her husband (or master).
The Lion of God

San Antonio, TX

#5169 Jul 22, 2013
Portia the Rossi wrote:
<quoted text>Since you are interested in the etiology of words, trying these three and tell us what they mean: homosapien, homo erectus and homosexual.
It is written...

Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my Father which is in heaven.

But whosoever shall deny me before men, him will I also deny before my Father which is in heaven.

I am asking you...

Are you a disciple of Jesus Christ?
Yes or no?

dollarsbill

Since: Jul 12

Location hidden

#5170 Jul 22, 2013
The Lion of God wrote:
<quoted text>
It is written...
Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my Father which is in heaven.
But whosoever shall deny me before men, him will I also deny before my Father which is in heaven.
I am asking you...
Are you a disciple of Jesus Christ?
Yes or no?
Luke 8:30 (NKJV)
30 Jesus asked him, saying, "What is your name?" And he said, "Legion," because many demons had entered him.
Ant

Alpharetta, GA

#5171 Jul 23, 2013
The Lion of God wrote:
<quoted text>
It is written...
Whosoever therefore shall confess me before men, him will I confess also before my Father which is in heaven.
But whosoever shall deny me before men, him will I also deny before my Father which is in heaven.
I am asking you...
Are you a disciple of Jesus Christ?
Yes or no?
Yet another post that proves your an ignorant retarded azz.

Since: Jun 07

Location hidden

#5172 Jul 23, 2013
Portia the Rossi wrote:
You are kidding, right?
Well, actually I am serious (smile).
Portia the Rossi wrote:
What you are spewing is that, all slaves were simply the property of their master of wives?
With all due respect, I have not spewed anything, but rather this is what you inferred from my argument. Perhaps, you should just simply ask me to explain my perspective, rather than trying to invoke a red herring argument, in my humble opinion.
Portia the Rossi wrote:
Blacks really did not have it bad, they were simply wives.
No, Blacks suffered horrific and inhumane treatment from their masters who used the KJV bible to justify their actions. However, Blacks slaves were not allowed to marry because it entailed a man owning property, i.e., his wife.

In fact, according to the bible, if a master gave his servant a wife, the bible states that the master could take this wife back (along with any sons and/or daughter borne thereof) at the end of 7 years, if the servant wished to go free. Now, if you disagree, please read Exodus 21.

So, from what I gather, Ex 21:4 contradicts the biblical claim of “What God has joined together, let no man put asunder “(Mat 19:6). But then again, there really isn’t any Hebrew word for “wife,” right?
Portia the Rossi wrote:
gynecologist: A physician who specializes in treating diseases of the female reproductive organs and providing well-woman health care that focuses primarily on the reproductive organs.
The word "gynecology" comes from the Greek ancient Greek gyne, meaning “woman”(not wife) and logia, meaning study. Thus, gynecology literally is the study of women.

Now, if you think that a physician is not synonymous with being a doctor, then I challenge you to do your own research, with all due respect.
Portia the Rossi wrote:
In other words, it does not mean either a wife doctor or woman doctor, it means a doctor who specializes in treating problems with the female reproductive organs.[/QUOTE
Please know that when a female has reproductive organs, she is considered a woman, even if she is not married (or should I say a wife). In other words, the word gyne has absolutely nothing to do with the marital status of a female, whereas the word “wife” does, right?
[QUOTE who="Portia the Rossi"] gyne suff.
Female reproductive organ: androgyne.
Please review my previous argument.

Since: Jun 07

Location hidden

#5173 Jul 23, 2013
Portia the Rossi wrote:
Since you are interested in the etiology of words, trying these three and tell us what they mean: homosapien, homo erectus and homosexual.
Well, actually I am more interested in etiological myths than the etiology of words.

At any rate, I think that the word “homosapien” is actually spelled “Homo sapiens,” which basically means the modern species of man (or humans), whereas “Homo erectus” means any extinct species of man (or humans).

Today, the word “homosexual” is used to denote sexual orientation or attraction to someone of the same sex, i.e., a gay or lesbian.
Truth hurts like Heck

Columbus, OH

#5176 Aug 11, 2013
Why do they try so hard when it is so obvious?
Just my Luck

Columbus, OH

#5184 Sep 5, 2013
Read my lips

Since: Jun 07

Location hidden

#5188 Sep 13, 2013
Trust in Jesus wrote:
<quoted text>I suspect you prefer myths.
No, I prefer debunking myths, with all due respect.
little lamb

South Yarra, Australia

#5189 Sep 13, 2013
gundee123 wrote:
<quoted text>
.
Now if you would like to delve deeper, please know that the word wife simply meant the property of her husband (or master).
Don't have a problem with this

What is your point??

After all women are told to emulate Sarah who called Abraham " Lord"

But please notice what ever word Hebrew or Greek it refers to 'woman' not a man.

Since: Jun 07

Location hidden

#5190 Sep 14, 2013
little lamb wrote:
Don't have a problem with this
What is your point??
My point is that from a biblical perspective, a man could only own a woman or women, but not another man. Thus, I will concede that I have not been able to find any biblical support for a man marrying another man, just like I have not been able to find any biblical support for Christians being required to give 10 percent of the earnings or wages to the church in the form of a tithe.
Nonetheless, please know that during biblical times, the “institution” of marriage was not based on love, but rather ownership, which was a form of servitude or slavery. However, I think that you would agree that today’s marriages are supposedly based on love and commitment, rather than ownership, right? And if so, please cite the specific scriptural passage whereas God commanded such a thing, if you would be so kind.
little lamb wrote:
After all women are told to emulate Sarah who called Abraham " Lord"
Well,“Didn’t Sara use her maid as a surrogate mother for Abraham to impregnate her,” if you do not mind my asking? And if so,“Should today’s women who are barren emulate Sarah’s behavior?” By the way, Abraham did not commit adultery because Hagar was neither married nor betrothed to be married to another man.
little lamb wrote:
But please notice what ever word Hebrew or Greek it refers to 'woman' not a man.
I agree. And please know that biblically speaking, adultery “always” consisted of the infidelity of a man’s wife, but not necessary the husband, since he was not anyone’s property. And if you disagree, I invite you to read Lev 20:10, i.e.,“And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.”
little lamb

South Yarra, Australia

#5191 Sep 14, 2013
gundee123 wrote:
<quoted text>
My point is that from a biblical perspective, a man could only own a woman or women, but not another man. Thus, I will concede that I have not been able to find any biblical support for a man marrying another man, just like I have not been able to find any biblical support for Christians being required to give 10 percent of the earnings or wages to the church in the form of a tithe.
Nonetheless, please know that during biblical times, the “institution” of marriage was not based on love, but rather ownership, which was a form of servitude or slavery. However, I think that you would agree that today’s marriages are supposedly based on love and commitment, rather than ownership, right? And if so, please cite the specific scriptural passage whereas God commanded such a thing, if you would be so kind.
Not quite sure what you are asking me to quote here..but scripture does say that " LOVE is the perfect bond of union."

And the song of Solomon is full of expressions of the love between a man and a woman...so again I don't understand what the relevance of your questions is...
gundee123 wrote:
<quoted,“Didn’t Sara use her maid as a surrogate mother for Abraham to impregnate her,” if you do not mind my asking? And if so,“Should today’s women who are barren emulate Sarah’s behavior?” By the way, Abraham did not commit adultery because Hagar was neither married nor betrothed to be married to another man.
<quoted text>
Women do it today as well by hiring surrogate women to have their babies...there is a whole hospital full of Indian women in India carrying babies for infertile women..

I believe Abraham treated Hagar unjustly, but Sarah holds some responsibility, it was her idea to pre-empt God...

Abraham was a righteous man because he believed God and acted in FAITH, not because he was a paragon of goodness..he wasn't.
gundee123 wrote:
<quoted,I agree. And please know that biblically speaking, adultery “always” consisted of the infidelity of a man’s wife, but not necessary the husband, since he was not anyone’s property. And if you disagree, I invite you to read Lev 20:10, i.e.,“And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.”
Gods Law states ' thou shalt not commit adultery'

And God didn't give this commandment to one 'sex'
Tall Guy

Stone Mountain, GA

#5192 Sep 14, 2013
HOW CAN A GAY BE A CHRISTIAN???
Simple...Repent of your homosexual gay sex and follow Jesus and you can be a Christian

Tell me when this thread is updated:

Subscribe Now Add to my Tracker

Add your comments below

Characters left: 4000

Please note by submitting this form you acknowledge that you have read the Terms of Service and the comment you are posting is in compliance with such terms. Be polite. Inappropriate posts may be removed by the moderator. Send us your feedback.

Christian Discussions

Title Updated Last By Comments
The Nativity Story 12 min messianic114 274
Hearing Voices (the supernatural world) (Feb '16) 25 min loveismygoal 1,143
Intelligent People Question Everything 54 min messianic114 1,135
gen 49: 27 3 hr Chuck Prince 856
Early Christianity 3 hr messianic114 325
Bible Interpretation 4 hr FredrickClem 2,012
The Apostle Paul... 4 hr Thom 57
More from around the web