JESUS is not god from bible verses
socci

Plattsburg, MO

#3251 Feb 2, 2013
servant wrote:
The Son was also made Lord and Messiah by God ( Psalms 110:1 -- Matthew 22:42-46 -- Acts 2:34-36 ). Plus, if David referred to Jesus as Lord, then we know that Jesus wasn't the Son of David . Even Jesus in ( Matt. 22:42-46 ) was showing us that His God and Father ( LORD ) made him 'Lord'.

-----JOHN 1:18 "No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him "

The Lord God came down to earth that we may know him...

-

John 1:1-3,10,11 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made...He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. He came to his own, and his own received him not.

1 Tim 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached to the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

Rv 22:13 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last...I Jesus have sent my angel to testify to you these things in the churches.

-

While he was the Son he was fully man capable of death that man may look upon him.

Preexisting son of God was Jehovah the same gave Moses the 10C law on Sinai.
servant

Mérida, Mexico

#3252 Feb 2, 2013
continued:

.

the doctrine of Christ (2 John 1:9)?

.

www.biblos.com

.

Jesus:
.
John 17
John 20:17
__________

The Apostles:

.

Romans 15:6
1 Corinthians 8:6
2 Corinthians 1:2-3
2 Corinthians 11:31
Ephesians 1:2
Ephesians 1:17
Ephesians 4:4-6
Hebrews 1:8-9
1 Peter 1:3
2 John 1:3
1 Thessalonians 1:1
2 Thessalonians 1:2
2 Timothy 1:2
Philippians 1:2

.
servant

Mérida, Mexico

#3253 Feb 2, 2013
socci wrote:
<quoted text>
The Lord God came down to earth that we may know him...
-
John 1:1-3,10,11 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made...He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. He came to his own, and his own received him not.
1 Tim 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached to the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
Rv 22:13 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last...I Jesus have sent my angel to testify to you these things in the churches.
-
While he was the Son he was fully man capable of death that man may look upon him.
Preexisting son of God was Jehovah the same gave Moses the 10C law on Sinai.
.

What?? Can you please respond to the rest of my post and explain those Bible passages I provided or are those other Bible passages I provided teaching something that is contrary to a doctrine you're trying to preserve.

.

servant

Mérida, Mexico

#3254 Feb 2, 2013
socci wrote:
<quoted text>
Here it is again:

.

What we see most doing, who are only interested in preserving their own doctrines rather than preserving the doctrine of Christ, is not taking all things written into account.

.

EXAMPLE: The reason we see the Apostle in ( 1 Ti 6:15-16 ) saying that no man has ever seen God nor can they is because the Apostles understood that Moses and the Prophets where not hearing and seeing God the Father himself in Old Testament times but were hearing and seeing His Ambassador. Can you guess who this Angel was that speaking to Moses ( Acts 7:37-38 / 1 Corinthians 10:1-4 ). READ THEM. Who spoke to Moses on Mount Sanai? God or the angel?
.

Acts 7:37-38 -- http://niv.scripturetext.com/acts/7-37.htm

.

1 Corinthians 10:1-4 -- http://niv.scripturetext.com/1_corinthians/10 ...

.

Yes, when we read the OT we see that it was God who spoke to Moses but remember, this angel is also the one who inherited God's name ( Exodus 23:20-21 -- Hebrews 1:4 ).

.

Exodus 23:20-21 -- http://niv.scripturetext.com/exodus/23-20.htm

.

Hebrews 1:4 -- http://niv.scripturetext.com/hebrews/1.htm

.

The Son was also made Lord and Messiah by God ( Psalms 110:1 -- Matthew 22:42-46 -- Acts 2:34-36 ). Plus, if David referred to Jesus as Lord, then we know that Jesus wasn't the Son of David . Even Jesus in ( Matt. 22:42-46 ) was showing us that His God and Father ( LORD ) made him 'Lord'.

.

Matthew 22:42-46 -- http://niv.scripturetext.com/matthew/22-42.ht ...

.

He is the one who was in the bosom of the Father, that came in the flesh in NT times and declared his Father (God).

.

-----JOHN 1:18 "No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him "

.

And what did our Lord make known about His God and Father? Well, that God is Spirit ( John 4:23-24 ) and no man has seen His form nor heard His voice ( John 5:37-38 ). A doctrine the Apostles would continue teaching (ex:--- 1 John 4:12 --- 1 Timothy 1:17 --- 1 Timothy 6:15-16 )
servant

Mérida, Mexico

#3255 Feb 2, 2013
.

the doctrine of Christ (2 John 1:9)?

.

www.biblos.com

.

Jesus:
.
John 17
John 20:17
__________

The Apostles:

.

Romans 15:6
1 Corinthians 8:6
2 Corinthians 1:2-3
2 Corinthians 11:31
Ephesians 1:2
Ephesians 1:17
Ephesians 4:4-6
Hebrews 1:8-9
1 Peter 1:3
2 John 1:3
1 Thessalonians 1:1
2 Thessalonians 1:2
2 Timothy 1:2
Philippians 1:2

.
Flygerian

Chickasha, OK

#3256 Feb 2, 2013
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
<quoted text>
.
When it is a framed question, why would anyone want to answer. What you are referring to is can G-d the Son, have a G-d, and the answer is yes. G-d the Son came to this world and took upon himself the form of a man. In that form he submitted to the Father and set an example for us.
.
So the problem with the question is your definition of G-d Almighty. It doesn't fit the description of G-d that we have in tha bible, which is that G-d is a compound unity.
Well show me the trinity in the OT. You cannot. It is on one side of the bible that the trinity is found and even in that it is contradictory and found lacking. That is if one is objective

“Call sign: Apache One Six”

Since: Mar 11

US 62 @ US 81

#3257 Feb 2, 2013
Flygerian wrote:
<quoted text>
Well show me the trinity in the OT. You cannot. It is on one side of the bible that the trinity is found and even in that it is contradictory and found lacking. That is if one is objective
<><
Is the Trinity taught in the Old Testament

From the beginning God introduces himself to man as Elohim.

In Gen .1:26 God (elohim) said “let us make man in our image, according to our likeness…” those engaged in this conversation were all the same in nature and image. God could not have been speaking to any heavenly creatures because none of them possesses a divine nature like his. We know later there were Divine Persons.

Each person of the Godhead can think and communicate with the other. This verse shows independent thought and cooperation within a plurality of his being. This means whoever elohim is speaking to has the same power as him.

Many antti -trinitarians try to avoid the issue by saying God is speaking with the angels in Gen.1:26. The Bible teaches us that Jesus - not an angel - created all things:“All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made”(John 1:3). And the previous verses 1,2 teach He (the word) existed with god before anything was created.

A literal translation of what Moses proclaimed to Israel as their anthem in Deuteronomy 6:4 is "Hear, 0 Israel, Jehovah our Gods is Jehovah a unity (one – echad, a unity)." He taught that there is a plurality of divine persons who constitute a unity as the one God.

Jesus said that the first and greatest commandment, said, "Hear, 0 Israel; The Lord our God, the Lord is one ..." (Mark 12:29). This also means a united one. Jesus said “I and my father are one, literally, WE are One. Both the Old and New Testament teach the unity of the divine personas in the being called God, YHWH. That is the Scripture in Hebrew and the Greek.

Isa. 48:16-17 "Come near to Me, hear this: I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, I was there. And now the Lord GOD and His Spirit have sent Me."Thus says the LORD, your Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel: "I am the LORD your God, who teaches you to profit, who leads you by the way you should go.

The Lord is the redeemer, and the Lord God and his spirit have sent me- Jesus, who is the one speaking, the redeemer.

Lets examine this again because this theme occurs over and over

Isaiah 48:16:“From the beginning from the time that it was, I was there:(1st person) and now the Lord GOD (2nd person) and His Spirit,(3rd person) hath sent me (1st person).” Here we have three individuals existing together, the one speaking who states that He was there from before time (John 1:1). He refers to the Lord and states that both Yahweh and His Spirit have sent me,(the speaker). This goes perfectly in line with Isa.6:8 God, speaking to Isaiah:“Who shall I send, who will go for us.” Both the singular and the plural are used in the same verse.

Isa. 42:1:“Behold! My Servant whom I uphold, my Elect One in whom My soul delights! I have put My Spirit upon Him; he will bring forth justice to the Gentiles.”

God is saying He will put his Spirit on Jesus and the ministry will eventually go beyond the Jews. Yet we are told Jesus is Immanuel, the Godman, who is God with a human nature. So we have three involved, the one speaking – He will put His spirit on Jesus, his servant.
[continued at link]
http://www.letusreason.org/Bilexp219.htm
Flygerian

Chickasha, OK

#3258 Feb 2, 2013
What a weird name for a website. "Let us reason" yet it doesnt reason. Hmm... As for all that it said lets "reason" about it

1. Genesis 1:26
So let me ge tthis straight. God Almighty is one (yet three if He is saying "US") yet says "us" when He means himself? And then AFTER saying US, He continues thru the WHOLE OLD TESTAMENT, Saying personal things like "I and me" and only using US in 2 other places? This is "reasonable"? Or is it "reasonable" that the when He says "us" He's talking to someone else?

2. Echad. Echad can mean unity of one and ONE. Look up where its used. I really dont feel lie putting this info here because its not going to change anything honestly. Just as my last point will not. Another time someone will ask you something regard number 1 and you'll answer the same. Saying three times God Almighty used US because He was referring to the other 2 persons of Himself. Yet in ALL other places He uses I and me to refer to Himself.

3. Isaiah 48:16-17. Isaiah would be the one that was endowed with the spirit. Its not a prophecy of Jesus nor is there any mention of Jesus in the OT.

4. Isaiah 42. The servant is Israel. Not a specific man but that was the role of Israel. To do those things.

“Call sign: Apache One Six”

Since: Mar 11

US 62 @ US 81

#3259 Feb 2, 2013
Flygerian wrote:
What a weird name for a website. "Let us reason" yet it doesnt reason. Hmm... As for all that it said lets "reason" about it
1. Genesis 1:26
So let me ge tthis straight. God Almighty is one (yet three if He is saying "US") yet says "us" when He means himself? And then AFTER saying US, He continues thru the WHOLE OLD TESTAMENT, Saying personal things like "I and me" and only using US in 2 other places? This is "reasonable"? Or is it "reasonable" that the when He says "us" He's talking to someone else?
2. Echad. Echad can mean unity of one and ONE. Look up where its used. I really dont feel lie putting this info here because its not going to change anything honestly. Just as my last point will not. Another time someone will ask you something regard number 1 and you'll answer the same. Saying three times God Almighty used US because He was referring to the other 2 persons of Himself. Yet in ALL other places He uses I and me to refer to Himself.
3. Isaiah 48:16-17. Isaiah would be the one that was endowed with the spirit. Its not a prophecy of Jesus nor is there any mention of Jesus in the OT.
4. Isaiah 42. The servant is Israel. Not a specific man but that was the role of Israel. To do those things.
<><
Due to space limitations I only posted part of the article.
<>< <><
Unless you have a few letters after your name and some peer reviewed studies your opinion is no more valid that the mindless scribblings on a public rest room wall.
Flygerian

Chickasha, OK

#3260 Feb 2, 2013
Allen Richards wrote:
<quoted text>
<><
Due to space limitations I only posted part of the article.
<>< <><
Unless you have a few letters after your name and some peer reviewed studies your opinion is no more valid that the mindless scribblings on a public rest room wall.
As I said it would be a waste for me to post anything contradictory to your thoughts. Lol @ a phd meaning someone is right or wrong. Is that how you understand scripture? By going to someone with a phd and having them explain it to you?

Since: Dec 09

Calgary, Canada

#3263 Feb 3, 2013
Flygerian wrote:
<quoted text>
Well show me the trinity in the OT. You cannot. It is on one side of the bible that the trinity is found and even in that it is contradictory and found lacking. That is if one is objective
.
Are you saying that we cannot believe the testimony of th NT? If you say yes to that why should I believe you believe the testimony of the OT?
Flygerian

Chickasha, OK

#3264 Feb 3, 2013
Minister of Trust wrote:
<quoted text>The simple truth is that you have a reprobate mind. You can not receive truth, but you will consume poison.
Are you physical? How so, then where do your thoughts come from? Thoughts, then feelings or hate, anger, love and lost must be rational. I mean, it must be rational to year for one who has died and become dust or even gone to heaven, as you might believe. Belief? Hmm, is that a physical idea, a mental or spiritual one?
I have a "reprobate mind" because of what?

None of what you said shows the trinity being anything other than Paganism.
Flygerian

Chickasha, OK

#3265 Feb 3, 2013
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
<quoted text>
.
Are you saying that we cannot believe the testimony of th NT? If you say yes to that why should I believe you believe the testimony of the OT?
What Im saying is that if God Almighty revealed Himself to the Hebrews than surely He taught them all they were to understand about Himself? This is the logical conclusion I would come to but how about you?

Since: Dec 09

Calgary, Canada

#3266 Feb 3, 2013
Flygerian wrote:
<quoted text>
What Im saying is that if God Almighty revealed Himself to the Hebrews than surely He taught them all they were to understand about Himself? This is the logical conclusion I would come to but how about you?
.
If that were true then there is no need for G-d to reveal himself more and more as he did with the prophets. Surely everything G-d wished to tell us he would have done in Genesis.
.
Secondly Messiah came to the Hebrews to reveal the Father.
.
I conclude from this remark that you don't believe the words of Yeshua either since it was his words which claimed he reveals the Father (Mat 11:27)
.
Lastly you don't even believe Moses who said:
Deu 18:15 The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken;
.
If G-d had not reserved more information for this Prophet, there would be no need to harken to him, since we could just hearken to Moses.
.
Since you don't believe the Messiah and the prophets and Moses, who are you believing?

Since: Dec 09

Calgary, Canada

#3267 Feb 3, 2013
Flygerian wrote:
What a weird name for a website. "Let us reason" yet it doesnt reason. Hmm... As for all that it said lets "reason" about it
1. Genesis 1:26
So let me ge tthis straight. God Almighty is one (yet three if He is saying "US") yet says "us" when He means himself? And then AFTER saying US, He continues thru the WHOLE OLD TESTAMENT, Saying personal things like "I and me" and only using US in 2 other places? This is "reasonable"? Or is it "reasonable" that the when He says "us" He's talking to someone else?
2. Echad. Echad can mean unity of one and ONE. Look up where its used. I really dont feel lie putting this info here because its not going to change anything honestly. Just as my last point will not. Another time someone will ask you something regard number 1 and you'll answer the same. Saying three times God Almighty used US because He was referring to the other 2 persons of Himself. Yet in ALL other places He uses I and me to refer to Himself.
3. Isaiah 48:16-17. Isaiah would be the one that was endowed with the spirit. Its not a prophecy of Jesus nor is there any mention of Jesus in the OT.
4. Isaiah 42. The servant is Israel. Not a specific man but that was the role of Israel. To do those things.
.
Let us reason:
.
1. Is it illogical to say that G-d is one (united) and more than one?
.
2. Is it illogical to understand that "echad" can mean either a "compound unity" or "unique" and use these definitions to understand the text?
.
3. Is this a logical statement? "God Almighty is one (yet three if He is saying "US") yet says "us" when He means himself?"
.
4. Is it logical to use the term "himself" when referring to a discussion within a compound unity to all members of that unity as you have done?
.
5. Is it logical to think Isaiah is the one who is sent, when the prophet tells us?
a. he has spoken plainly since the beginning.
b. He was there in the beginning.
.
6. Is it logical to think the servant Israel is the nation Israel when?
a. He brings forth justice to the nations.
b. He doesn't cry.
c. He is gentle (a bruised reed he will not break or a smoking wick he will not quench).
d. He will not be crushed until he brings forth justice.
e. When was the nation given as a covenant for the people.

dollarsbill

Since: Jul 12

Location hidden

#3268 Feb 3, 2013
Steonaer wrote:
<quoted text>
I know much more. But I harmonize it within the context set by these facts. That Christ is subordinate to another, is a son to another and has a God over him. If not flying off these boundaries is being like a 'skipping disk' I dont mind skipping. Its the context in which I interpret the rest of the germane scriptures about Christ's identity.
You haven't shown that you known anything yet about God yet. Nothing plus nothing equals?

“Call sign: Apache One Six”

Since: Mar 11

US 62 @ US 81

#3269 Feb 3, 2013
Flygerian wrote:
<quoted text>
As I said it would be a waste for me to post anything contradictory to your thoughts. Lol @ a phd meaning someone is right or wrong. Is that how you understand scripture? By going to someone with a phd and having them explain it to you?
<><
I will just leave you to you ignorance. You probably would but I would not take legal, medical, or accounting advice from some anonymous person posting with a pseudonym. Before I would accept such advice I would want to know that he/she was qualified in the relevant field. In this field, guess what amigo, you ain't!
Flygerian

Chickasha, OK

#3270 Feb 3, 2013
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
<quoted text>
.
If that were true then there is no need for G-d to reveal himself more and more as he did with the prophets. Surely everything G-d wished to tell us he would have done in Genesis.
What has God Almighty revealed since Jesus died and left? Nothing?
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
Secondly Messiah came to the Hebrews to reveal the Father.
Thats if you believe Jesus is the messiah. The Hebrews certainly do not since he didnt fulfill the messianic prophecies.
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
I conclude from this remark that you don't believe the words of Yeshua either since it was his words which claimed he reveals the Father (Mat 11:27)
You are correct. As nice as Jesus words sound, they do not fit in with what the Messiah was supposed to be/do. He was supposed to do other things and was not supposed to do/say others.
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
Lastly you don't even believe Moses who said:
Deu 18:15 The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken;
.
Who said I dont believe Moses? I just dont believe this refers to Jesus.
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
If G-d had not reserved more information for this Prophet, there would be no need to harken to him, since we could just hearken to Moses.
Well the prophet would not come and add/take away from what was already commanded. He would come lead people back to the teaching of God Almighty. Since Israel will be astray at the time.
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
Since you don't believe the Messiah and the prophets and Moses, who are you believing?
No you got it wrong. Here it is
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
Since you don't believe JESUS, who are you believing?
Thats the only thing you got right. And I believe in the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacob. The God of Israel. Anything else really has to go along with Him. If it does not then most likely I am not going to accept it.
Flygerian

Chickasha, OK

#3271 Feb 3, 2013
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
<quoted text>
.
Let us reason:
.
1. Is it illogical to say that G-d is one (united) and more than one?
Too bad that the bible (well the OT) doesnt say that. To say that echad was an example of this would be a terrible assertion
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
2. Is it illogical to understand that "echad" can mean either a "compound unity" or "unique" and use these definitions to understand the text?
And heres the terrible assertion lol Take a look at the usage of echad in these places. Is it "unity" or just the NUMERAL ONE?

(Gen. 1:9)
(Gen. 42:13)
(Ex. 12:49)
(Ex. 25:12)

Just to name a few
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
<quoted text>
3. Is this a logical statement? "God Almighty is one (yet three if He is saying "US") yet says "us" when He means himself?"
.
No this is not logical.
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
<quoted text>
4. Is it logical to use the term "himself" when referring to a discussion within a compound unity to all members of that unity as you have done?
No it is not logical to refer to "Himself" as himself when there are other parts of "Himself" that made Him say "us" in other places. Which one is it because it cant be both
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
<quoted text>
5. Is it logical to think Isaiah is the one who is sent, when the prophet tells us?
a. he has spoken plainly since the beginning.
b. He was there in the beginning.
When the word of God came to Israel, didnt it come thru a prophet? And not just to Israel face to face? I ask this to say who do you think spoke those words for god Almighty? Did God Almighty not use Isaiah to speak the words to Israel at that time?
MESSIANIC114 wrote:
<quoted text>
6. Is it logical to think the servant Israel is the nation Israel when?
a. He brings forth justice to the nations.
b. He doesn't cry.
c. He is gentle (a bruised reed he will not break or a smoking wick he will not quench).
d. He will not be crushed until he brings forth justice.
e. When was the nation given as a covenant for the people.
Yes I think all those things are logical. Especially when Israel is named several times in the book of Isaiah. So to think Isaiah named Israel as being a servant of God Almighty at least 5 times before Chapter 53 and then suddenly switch to a random servant that was never mentioned before is illogical right? I mean if you take the context of the chapter (53).

Since: Dec 09

Calgary, Canada

#3272 Feb 3, 2013
Flygerian wrote:
<quoted text>
What has God Almighty revealed since Jesus died and left? Nothing?
<quoted text>
Thats if you believe Jesus is the messiah. The Hebrews certainly do not since he didnt fulfill the messianic prophecies.
<quoted text>
You are correct. As nice as Jesus words sound, they do not fit in with what the Messiah was supposed to be/do. He was supposed to do other things and was not supposed to do/say others.
<quoted text>
Who said I dont believe Moses? I just dont believe this refers to Jesus.
<quoted text>
Well the prophet would not come and add/take away from what was already commanded. He would come lead people back to the teaching of God Almighty. Since Israel will be astray at the time.
<quoted text>
No you got it wrong. Here it is
<quoted text>
Thats the only thing you got right. And I believe in the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacob. The God of Israel. Anything else really has to go along with Him. If it does not then most likely I am not going to accept it.
.
<quoted text> What has God Almighty revealed since Jesus died and left? Nothing?
.
It was your implication that G-d does not reveal in stages. To say G-d has not revealed anything since Yeshua, gives Yeshua the final word. Yeshua said:
Joh 14:6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
.
<quoted text> The Hebrews certainly do not since he didnt fulfill the messianic prophecies.
.
Hebrews were the first to believe in Yeshua. They witnessed his fulfillment of prophecy and they wrote it down for us. That most didn't receive the salvation offered by Yeshua was also prophecied:
Isa 53:1 Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?
.
<quoted text> As nice as Jesus words sound, they do not fit in with what the Messiah was supposed to be/do.
.
Yeshua has done everything needed and predicted as the priestly Messiah. All that is left is the Kingly Messiah to bring judgment and the restoration. Since there is no time limit to when this needs to be accomplished he cannot be eliminated as the Messiah. Since scripture and tradition tell us the time for the Messiah's appearance are over, he wins by default. No other claimant to be the Messiah has even come close to fulfilling the expectations of the Messiah.
.
<quoted text> And I believe in the God of Abraham Isaac and Jacob. The God of Israel.
.
What is it you are believing? Certainly not the scriptures, because they do not eliminate Yeshua as the Messiah. Therefore you must be changing the meaning of the scriptures and/or believing the disciples of those who rejected and killed the Messiah. Since the tradition below tells us that Israel will need its eyes opened, why would you believe them?
.
When the resurrection comes, those who arise from the dead will see the Eternal Spirit returning to Zion through the Gate of Mercy (Golden Gate). This gate has been blocked for many generations. Therefore it is said that this gate will not be opened until the eyes of Israel are opened at the end of days.
.
The Gate is still closed, but your eyes may be opened.
.
"Our rabbis taught: During the last forty years before the destruction of the Temple the lot ['For the Lord'] did not come up in the right hand; nor did the crimson-colored strap become white; nor did the western most light shine; and the doors of the Hekel [Temple] would open by themselves" (Soncino version, Yoma 39b).
.
What happened 40 years before the destruction of the temple?

Tell me when this thread is updated:

Subscribe Now Add to my Tracker

Add your comments below

Characters left: 4000

Please note by submitting this form you acknowledge that you have read the Terms of Service and the comment you are posting is in compliance with such terms. Be polite. Inappropriate posts may be removed by the moderator. Send us your feedback.

Christian Discussions

Title Updated Last By Comments
The Old testament does not belong in the bible. 14 min WelbyMD 19
Early Christianity 19 min Big Al 2,074
News Police need more training on hate crime, says A... 21 min WelbyMD 2
Another one joins our team ! 21 min 0smius 22
What religion was Enoch, Noah, and Abraham? (Oct '12) 28 min WelbyMD 1,025
The False Teachings of the Hebrew Israelites, s... (Jan '14) 44 min WelbyMD 1,037
Is there any evidence Apostles Peter and Paul b... 22 hr oxbow 308
More from around the web