It does answer the question: Could he write?. And the answer, apparently so. So why are these "pivotal to all mankind, words of Jesus" never scribbled down so that there could be no doubts as to his orders, to man*.<quoted text>
the law of moses "In the Law Moses commanded us to stone such women" [your words], the law of moses is found in Deuteronomy and Leviticus. duhhhh!
When one quotes or describes the stories in it, you copy/write it down and give the book chapter and verse. Look back at what you did in post 765 First of all, they didn't need Jesus's approval to stone her so he didn't stop anything. in fact he told them to go ahead if they could. but they couldn't. second of all, they did not follow the law in their attempt to trick Jesus.(Lev 20:10; Deut 22:22-24) you gave your description of the story and gave an old testament source. So I thought that you thought the stoning occurred in the Old Testament because of this. Clearly I was wrong that is what you think but I cant apologise seeing it was your use of sources that got this round my neck.
so if Jesus set "criteria that was not present in the old laws" [your claim] just what were those new criteria?
Jesus said Let any one of you who is without sin be the first to throw a stone at her in the old laws it didnt matter if you sinned or not you could still kill her, Jesus demanded that only the sinless can punish her thats the new criteria.
you quote a passage and claim that the adulterous man was there but the quote only contains a reference to the woman
Read it again it says ,Teacher, this woman was caught in the act of adultery now read what I said Where was the man? There he is, it says they found them doing it with each other! They know where he was,. I didnt say it described the man, I said that they know where his was, and that this answers you question where was the man involved? no man, no case. By showing that the story says they found him. NOT by describing him.
you did not nor do you understand why Jesus wrote on the ground. you make an assumption that does not even fit the story.
if he was changing the law don't you think that we would have an explanation of what he wrote?
If he embarrassed the Pharisees by writing in the dirt don't you think that we would have an explanation of what he wrote? Yes because it would be the words he wrote that hurt their case so badly.
if he was changing the law don't you think that we would have an explanation of what he wrote? No! Because I havent said he changed the law like, I havent said that whatever he wrote changed the law but I have commented on what he said and thus imply that I claim he changed the law verbally.
i have changed nothing to the story. nor have you shown what i have changed
Yes you have changed the story and yes I have shown where. You seemed to implied that they didnt know who the man was when you asked where he was, I have explained how they did know who and where he was as they saw those illegal lovers meting up,this woman was caught in the act of adultery getting caught in the act of adultery means someone sees you having sex! You say that when Jesus was writing in the dirt it was the final embarrassment, I say you cant know that, as if it was the final embarrassment the story would say what he wrote, which it doesnt.
It is you who has shown your ignorance of the story and now you have shown your ignorance of what I said and what I am claiming here in the 21st century, although there is one thing I have no reasonable explanation for and that's you how the f*** do you f*** up this much? Maybe God makes you do it I dont know!
*Jewish man and Jewish woman, and Jewish children of a certain age, at which they became counted members of the tribe. All other humans(Gentiles) are as dogs. LOL! Just ask Jewsus. The savior mocks man's best friend and most of (mankind?).