Divided court upholds Wisconsin's vot...

Divided court upholds Wisconsin's voter ID law

There are 7 comments on the Milwaukee Journal-Sentinal story from Jul 31, 2014, titled Divided court upholds Wisconsin's voter ID law. In it, Milwaukee Journal-Sentinal reports that:

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Zeppelin

Knoxville, TN

#1 Aug 5, 2014
A few years ago we got the voter ID in my state. It turned out to be a good thing.
Wondering

Tyngsboro, MA

#3 Aug 6, 2014
Fa-Foxy wrote:
I support voter i.D. laws. Since there is no U.S. Constitutional "right to vote", states are free to set ALMOST any requirement they want to for a person to be eligible to vote.
Say what?
15th amendment: Section 1.
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.
19th amendment:
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of sex.
24th amendment:
Section 1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote in any primary or other election for President or Vice President, for electors for President or Vice President, or for Senator or Representative in Congress, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or any State by reason of failure to pay any poll tax or other tax.
26th amendment:
Section 1. The right of citizens of the United States, who are eighteen years of age or older, to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of age.

You must be a graduate of the lides school of constitutional law!
Wondering

Tyngsboro, MA

#6 Aug 6, 2014
Fa-Foxy wrote:
<quoted text>
Those amendments apply ONLY IF a state grants a general right to vote:. There is no U.S. Constitutional right that they do so, and this was SPECIFICALLY AFFIRMED by SCOTUS in Gore v. Bush (2000). Have a problem with that ? Then take it up with SCOTUS.
Common phrase in all 4 amendments:
"shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State"

Gore v Bush was about counting standards, not the right to vote.
Wondering

Tyngsboro, MA

#8 Aug 6, 2014
Fa-Foxy wrote:
Because there isn't any and never has been. Why else would he introduce such a bill ?
I gave you 4 constitutional amendments that say otherwise. Why some SH politician would introduce redundancy is beyond me.
Wondering

Tyngsboro, MA

#9 Aug 6, 2014
The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by ANY State
Wondering

Tyngsboro, MA

#11 Aug 6, 2014
Fa-Foxy wrote:
<quoted text>
That's NOT what it says !
Those amendments apply IF, and ONLY IF, a state decides to give it's citizens a general right to vote. They are not required to do so. You obviously don't understand our federal system of dual sovereignty.
Also, look up Bush v. Gore (2000) where SCOTUS EXPLICITLY SAID that there is NO U.S. Constitutional "right to vote". Are you saying that the SCOTUS justices are wrong about that ?!
Why don't you do this ? " Call or write the ACLU or some other left-wing organization and ask them. They will tell you that i am correct.
Or just google "US Constitutional Right To Vote". You'll see that right does not exist. Don't like that ? Then amend the U.S. Constitution to explicitly grant that right.
Yes dear.
Zeppelin

Knoxville, TN

#12 Aug 6, 2014
What are you two arguing about, now? Both of you agree voter ID is a good thing. LOL

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