You missed one explanation.Genius, you still haven't said what word was replaced in 1946 by 'homosexual', and why 'homosexual' is a more accurate word than the word it replaced.
Paul was trained the Jewish law as a Pharisee.'Man/bed'(arsenokoit ēs) is a direct reference to OT law forbidding gay sex. This has been the common, consistent and predominate interpretation of both Jews and Christians.
Moreover, your attempt to wedge the approval of any form of adultery or fornication into Judeo/Christian sexual doctrine is silly stupid.
'Homosexual' was used when it became the common word for gay sex, just as 'gay' transitioned from meaning happy to meaning homosexual.