It's the Darwin crowd that lacks the ...

It's the Darwin crowd that lacks the facts in evolution debate

There are 154833 comments on the Asheville Citizen-Times story from Mar 15, 2009, titled It's the Darwin crowd that lacks the facts in evolution debate. In it, Asheville Citizen-Times reports that:

I would like to respond to the letter 'Recent letter offered no examples of Darwinian disingenuousness,' . He responds to an article with, 'He says evolution is 'so riddled with holes,' yet fails to provide a ...

Join the discussion below, or Read more at Asheville Citizen-Times.

“What, me worry?”

Since: Mar 09

I'm a racist caricature!

#118560 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Going by your premise, all languages belongs to God the creator.
No, silly. Only things that exist can own other things.

“What, me worry?”

Since: Mar 09

I'm a racist caricature!

#118561 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> I call that, laziness in the highest order. I am not English, but i can speak it, many reasons are associated with that, that you ignorantly failed to look at. More of license trash, but you can not bend the truth.
You can use the language, but you also abuse it. Using the adjective form of "own" as a verb is abusing the language. Do you know what adjectives and verbs are?

“See how you are?”

Level 5

Since: Jul 12

Earth

#118562 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> No! i am talking about, genealogy. From parents( ancestors) to their offsprings( progenies).
Yes! I answered the question correctly, you just didn't ask the right one.
You could have asked "What is a family tree?" instead of "What is Family Tree?"

You wish to narrow a language to "belonging" to a specific country.
I narrowed my answer to your specific question.
KAB

United States

#118563 Jun 24, 2013
LowellGuy wrote:
<quoted text>
What is the evidence you have read anything on the subject?
I knew enough to ask the tough question which you didn't answer, indicating you probably haven't read enough to know and provide data.

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118564 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> I meant, ownership by origination. Now, if something did not come into form( originate) how can people make use of that thing? if English did not come/ came into form, how can people of other languages have access to it?

Origination =/= ownership.

You need to understand what words mean. You are trying to maneuver around your error.

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118565 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> I call that, laziness in the highest order. I am not English, but i can speak it, many reasons are associated with that, that you ignorantly failed to look at. More of license trash, but you can not bend the truth.

I see you cannot answer coherently. I call that, laziness in the highest order. More of the "ownership by origination" BS, but you can not bend the truth.

“See how you are?”

Level 5

Since: Jul 12

Earth

#118566 Jun 24, 2013
Dogen wrote:
<quoted text>
I see you cannot answer coherently. I call that, laziness in the highest order. More of the "ownership by origination" BS, but you can not bend the truth.
You have that wrong. You can't bend the facts, but Bible doctrine bends the "Truth" like a maladjusted taffy pulling machine on 240V.

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118567 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Don' t shy away from the truth, Asian. What i said and wrote is the truth, every reasonable humans knew/ knows that.

you are confusing own and origination. They are not related words and one does not imply the other.
Basic error.
What i said and wrote is the truth, every reasonable humans knows that.

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118568 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Just accept the fact, you don' t know. You were the same liar that said, English originated from Northern Germany, and i asked you a simple question, where in Germany as a whole, English is taken as first or native language, to no avail. Waiting!

Not relevant to the question of ownership of the English language.

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118569 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Not relevant to your excuses. If the English did not introduced the language, people like you or i( me), would 'nt have had access to the language, by that implication, they are the owners of the languague, so giving excuses of licenses, is not relevant here.

Not relevant to the question of OWNERSHIP of the English language.

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118570 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Stupid and stupid.

Yes I know you are, but what about me?


“See how you are?”

Level 5

Since: Jul 12

Earth

#118571 Jun 24, 2013
KAB wrote:
<quoted text>
I knew enough to ask the tough question which you didn't answer, indicating you probably haven't read enough to know and provide data.
As usual, you provide ZERO information and you seem to be pointless.

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118572 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Clearly and logically right! The English introduced their language to all the countries that takes English as first or official language, by that, they are the owners of the language, but passed it through conquest to other nations, so no licensing involved.

Not relevant to the question of ownership of the English language.

Introduction,... official,... conquest,.... none of it is relevant to the question of ownership of the English language.

----------
Possible meanings of the word 'own':

"Of or belonging to oneself or itself" does English belong ONLY to England?

Answer: No. First test of ownership failed.

----------
"That which belongs to one". Does English only belong to one or a sole owner?

Answer: No. Second test of ownership failed.

----------
"a. To have or possess as property:" Does England have or possess the English language as property?

Answer: No. Third test of ownership failed.

----------
" To have control over:". Does England have control over the English Language?

Answer: No. Forth test of ownership failed.

http://www.thefreedictionary.com/own

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118573 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Clearly and logically right! The English introduced their language to all the countries that takes English as first or official language, by that, they are the owners of the language, but passed it through conquest to other nations, so no licensing involved.

See above post. Your post has no bearing on who owns the English language.

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118574 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> No! i am talking about, genealogy. From parents( ancestors) to their offsprings( progenies).

Not relevant to the question of ownership of the English language.

My grandparents and parents do not own me.

I do not own my children.

We have abolished slavery in the U.S.



“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118575 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Going by your premise, all languages belongs to God the creator.

Not relevant to the question of ownership of the English language.

God makes no claim to own human languages.

If he does then every neologism is God inspired!

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118576 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Not relevant. Now, refute my statement.

Not relevant to the question of ownership of the English language.

Your statement is not logical or rational and thus is self refuting. You are confusing the concepts of origin and origination as if they have the same or overlapping meaning. They do not.

I refer you to a dictionary.

“I am Sisyphus”

Since: Nov 07

Location hidden

#118577 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> Your mention of Germanic tribes was general, not all the Germanic tribes did that. Take note! There were all Germanic, but some were Dutch, Danish, German and English.

Not relevant to the question of ownership of the English language.

You are confabulating the concepts of ownership with that of origin.

Origin does not imply ownership

“What, me worry?”

Since: Mar 09

I'm a racist caricature!

#118578 Jun 24, 2013
KAB wrote:
<quoted text>
I knew enough to ask the tough question which you didn't answer, indicating you probably haven't read enough to know and provide data.
Sure. Meanwhile, you still apply double standards to protect your religious beliefs from scrutiny while assuming that everything that you think might contradict them must necessarily be incorrect in some way. Cherrypicking. And, that's dishonest. And, you were even dishonest when we discussed the practice. If you have to repeatedly and brazenly lie to maintain your religious beliefs, your religious beliefs must rest upon the shakiest of foundations. Pathetic.

Level 6

Since: Mar 12

Location hidden

#118579 Jun 24, 2013
Charles Idemi wrote:
<quoted text> I meant, ownership by origination. Now, if something did not come into form( originate) how can people make use of that thing? if English did not come/ came into form, how can people of other languages have access to it?
Oh, so you have wasted a whole year merely arguing that the English originated English? Wow, what an idiot. Really.

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