Christ "fulfilled" the demands of the Mosaic law, which called for perfect obedience in the Mosiac law. His sacrifice done away with ''us'' having to keep the Mosiac law. The OT was a school master<quoted text>
No, he said that he was not here to destroy the laws, he was here to fulfill the prophecy. Explain how a law can be fulfilled.
The Greek for 'fulfil' is pleroo. It occurs on many New Testament occasions, including Matthew 5:17. The range of meanings for this word are,'to fill up,''to fill to the brim,''to level up'(that is, in the sense of levelling up a hollow). Figuratively, the meaning would be 'to satisfy,''to execute,''to finish,' or 'to complete.'
In the New Testament,'pleroo' usually has the sense of accomplishing and satisfying, as in the case of prophecies. We may also read of a net being full (Matthew 13:48), and of joy being full (John 15:11; 16:24; 1 John 1:4; 2 John 1:12). In each case in those Scriptures,'pleroo' is used. These examples help us to see that 'pleroo' does not need to be forced in meaning. In Matthew 1:22-23, the miracle of Mary’s virgin pregnancy and the resulting birth has fulfilled (Gk:'pleroo') the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14; thereby that prophecy was satisfied, completed, accomplished.
Jesus was stating that the Hebrew Bible should not be set aside, it still held authority. He did not come to destroy the Old Testament (the Law and Prophets), but He certainly did come to fulfil or satisfy, that revelation since He brought a superior revelation, that of the New Covenant.
Valid as in still the inspired Holy Scripture of the Torah, but not binding to Christians today, for the simple fact Christ fullfilled the Mosiac law...The other two major points are; not one dot shall be taken from the law, until heaven and Earth pass away.
Earth has not passed away! Trust me on this! I live there.
Jesus goes on to say, "until all is fulfilled". Has all the prophecies been fulfilled? Has the prophecy on the second coming been fulfilled?
No. So there are three major clues for you that god's laws, according to the bible, are still as valid today as they ever were.
You are taken this out of context, and applying to ALL prophecies. Which isnt the case here.
When you state that ''until all is fullfilled'', Christ was meaning and speaking about his purpose for coming, which was to be crucified and resurrected and fullfill all that was spoken of him in the OT.