No, you stated "man" plus "bed" is the the correct interpretation. How do you go from "man" plus "bed" to equal "homosexual"?<quoted text>
The question was, what word was translated homosexual. I addressed that completely. There was no specificity about OT or NT...
And if "man" plus "bed" is the correct interpretation, then obviously the bible says nothing about lesbians, right?
Your last sentence sums you up pretty well.
Wow are you stupid.