I never claimed you said He did, DUH! If you have ANY intellectual honesty about you whatsoever, then just answer the question.<quoted text>
Never said He spoke English, DUH!
What language(s) did Jesus speak?
You have been idiotically insisting that your ENGLISH Bible says I'm wrong, yet not one, single person who wrote the original texts wrote or spoke English. Hell, it didn't even exist as a language yet.
The word "homosexual" didn't even become part of the English lexicon until the late 1700s-early 1800s.
I guess it's time to put on my teacher's hat, AGAIN!
The Greek word arsenokitei (arseno-KEE-tay)(the form used in 1 Timothy is arsenokiteis [arseno-KEE-tays]), is formed by combining the noun arsin, which means male, with the construction kit-, a derivative of the verb kimei, which means lie down. Combined, the word refers to people who lie down with males. What remains to be determined is whether the word is referring to males lying with males, or females lying with males. Ordinarily, to determine if a Greek noun is masculine or feminine, one looks at it in the nominative case with the definite article. For example, o adhelfos, the brother, is in the nominative case, and both the os ending and the definite article o tell us the noun is masculine. But the word used in these two verses presents a small challenge to us, because in ancient literature, it never appears with a definite article.(In fact, outside these two passages, it never appears at all!)
The last two letters of the word in 1 Corinthians, and the last three in 1 Timothy, are where we need to look first. Greek nouns are declined according to case. That is, the ending of a noun changes to indicate how the word is being used in the sentence. We have something similar in English pronouns: We use the word I as a subject, but me as an object. For all intents and purposes, I and me mean the same thing. But it is incorrect to say Me want a book, or Give I a book. In 1 Corinthians, the word is in the nominative case, and the ending is clearly a feminine ending. This would suggest that the word is referring to women lying with males. In 1 Timothy, the word is in the dative case, which in English corresponds to putting the word to before the noun.(Example: Give the book TO ME.) And again, the ending is feminine. Even without the definite article to prove the point, the evidence so far suggests that Paul was speaking about women when he used this word, not men.
There are two other pieces of evidence to weigh. First, when properly translated, Scripture contains no prior condemnation of homosexuality, and the Hebrew Old Testament contains the record of two same-sex marriages, neither condemned by God. Paul, as a Jewish scholar, could not have been ignorant of this. So for him to suddenly, and without precedent, introduce a condemnation of homosexuality, without a word of explanation, would make absolutely no sense, and would have created an uproar in the early churches. Church history documents that same-sex marriages existed, and continued, in the Christian church up until around the 13th or 14th century.
Education > dogma