Posted in the Patent / Trademark Law Forum
#1 Jul 20, 2013
If a company owns (4) trademarks, and they all contain the same stylized graphical logo for the name of distinction, but the owner sells (2) of the marks containing the graphical representation in the registration, can the original owner continue to use the other two trademarks therefore causing confusion?
Example: 1) Superciliouz® Apples 2) Superciliouz® Bananas 3) Superciliouz® Grapes 4) Superciliouz® Oranges
Each has a stylized graphical logo for the word Superciliouz and text for the accompanying words like apples, oranges, bananas, grapes.
If the seller sells the Assignee "Superciliouz® Grapes & Superciliouz® Oranges and agrees in the Assignment Agreement never to use the trademark after the contract date,m can the original owner continue to use Superciliouz® Apples & Superciliouz® Bananas as this would indeed cause confusion in the eyes of the public?
Since: Oct 14
#2 Nov 9, 2014
Generally, the owner can't use the trademark anymore. Trademark is a representation of a product of a company and if he sold the trademark to a 2nd party. The 2nd party has now the exclusive rights over the trademark.
Since: Sep 15
#3 Sep 29, 2015
Yes, you are right chandrapeers. The trade marks can't use by company it is only for 2nd party. One of the best example is here also: http://marques.ex pert/
Add your comments below
|Judge Mayer's Concurrence in IV Shows the Probl... (Oct '16)||Jul 31||Operator NumberTwo||8|
|Stupid question about TESS (Oct '15)||Jul 31||Operator NumberTwo||5|
|PowWow Energy Releases Automated Water Records ...||Jul 21||American PieJamboree||2|
|Apple's next MacBook could completely reinvent ...||Mar '17||Michael852||1|
|Can a name like this be trademarked?||Mar '17||chrisjchrisj||1|
|EDITORIAL: A case involving The Slants, an Asia... (Jan '17)||Jan '17||Anar||2|
|China patent in U.S. (Jan '17)||Jan '17||zlarson||1|
Find what you want!
Search Patent / Trademark Law Forum Now
Copyright © 2017 Topix LLC