Posted in the Patent / Trademark Law Forum
#1 Sep 20, 2010
If a claim (s) do not specifically limit the "use" of a product (specific industry or specific application), is their likely of infringement if:
1) the product is in fact used in a completely different industry than the inventor HAS been using it for the past 19 years (one application and within one specific industry for what is was designed for...)
2)the "other" new intended use is in different industry, used differently (same exact product though)and could this be considered sufficient grounds for "non-obvious use"?
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