Which is more likely to be true? His opinion that he saw God and angels? Many of the notable and not notable ones through out the centuries have claimed to have seen God and or angels. Soldiers on the battle fields have claimed to seen angels in the midst of fighting. Joan of Arc is said to have had her vision from the Lord. Paul had his vision of the Lord. People having life after death experiences have claimed to have seen God and angels and dead relatives.What is more likely to be true? The first vision, or that he screwed women he claimed the Lord wanted him to marry?
See, a single man that was pro-life, had many children by one wife, that is proof of sexual activity.
But that same guy, a pro-lifer, doing his own 'religious marriages' to over thirty females in a three year period and not a single child exists to prove sexual activity was taking place, that cast's doubt as to the claim he was having sex for possibly hundreds of times with over thirty women in a three year period. Just a single living descendant would cast belief he was having sexual relations with just one of those wives.
So he claims to have seen God and angels. And others claimed to have seen the same angels he saw on several accounts.
He didn't claim to be having sexual relations with any one but Emma.
People claim he didn't see God and angels. And it's usually those that have never seen God and or angels that disbelieve others claims to have seen God and or angels.
But people claim he was having sex with over thirty females in a three year period for what would have been hundreds of times and there are no kids to prove all that sexual activity took place. Yet they claim no evidence is needed to believe he had sex with over thirty women in a three year period even if there are no kids for proof.
The reasoning sounds a bit twisted to me :)