The Law does not spell out every scenario. For example, you understand the consequences of the bitter water for the guilty woman as being sterility, yet you can't answer how the bitter water would have affected a woman who was beyond child bearing age. Nor can you explain how sterility proves infidelity.<quoted text>
Why do you refuse to answer? I guess you don't have an answer.
We know any woman would have had to have been of child bearing age, due to the passages regarding "conceiving seed".
Therefore, it is a given the husband had reason to suspect his wife of adultery, and that reason was she was pregnant and he didn't cause it.
Now answer my questions.
Why does the husband suspect infidelity when the wife denies it and there are no witnesses? You think he'd pubicly declare he was cuckoolded with no reason?
And I'll ask you again, what happens to the unfaithful woman who is sterile (your understanding w/out translation), and how could her sterility be confirmed?
You're gonna dodge my questions, again, aren't ya?