For the two percent of pregnancies terminated during this time frame, you PLM sure make it sound like it is a common occurrence.<quoted text>
It's not an asinine question. It's a perfectly valid question. All along you misguided PC'ers have been stressing the concept of the fetus being "part of the woman" and 'sustaining its life and securing nourishment through the woman" as the primary reason for justifying why it should be her decision to terminate. Now it turns out it is NOT the primary reason......viability is. But what is viability except just another man-established point at which a fetus's life attains value and is worthy of some protection.
On top of which viability is a concept whose definition you don't even understand.
Just another example of how, when you remove the veneer of the PC argument/logic, it fails on every possible level.
And if you weren't able to follow along, dude was asking about terminations a day or two before the due date. That's not legal due to the concept of viability.
That's my point. Your post above has little to do with the topic being discussed. You tried hard to get an unnecessary dig in, though. Good on you, Doc. Keep your true colors bright and shiny.