Who says Mormons aren't Christians?

Who says Mormons aren't Christians?

There are 32065 comments on the CNN story from Oct 12, 2011, titled Who says Mormons aren't Christians?. In it, CNN reports that:

Editor's note: Dean Obeidallah is an award-winning comedian who has appeared on TV shows such as Comedy Central's "Axis of Evil" special, ABC's "The View," CNN's "What the Week" and HLN's "The Joy Behar Show." He is executive producer of the annual New York Arab-American Comedy Festival and the Amman Stand Up Comedy Festival.

Join the discussion below, or Read more at CNN.

gommom

Pittsburgh, PA

#22936 Apr 2, 2013
youtube.com/watch... …
Ugly got awesome

Since: Sep 12

Ozark, MO

#22937 Apr 2, 2013
Seriously wrote:
Livinginthelandofcrazy,

Nuff said! And, we didn't even need your monicer to notice either.
You're telling me...

“Good day to you!”

Since: Oct 08

Earth

#22938 Apr 2, 2013
fedupwiththemess wrote:
Mormons are mormons believing in john smith and some man they call a modern day prophet. They bible does not mention this prophet at all. Nothing but a bunch of lies.
The old Jewish writings precluding the new testament era, they don't mention a prophet Jesus of Nazareth. The old testament doesn't mention the name Jesus at all or that Jesus would be born the son of God in the old testament. The old testament doesn't mention Matthew, Mark, Luke, John or any of the disciples names in a future context. People called prophets in the new testament aren't mentioned in the old testament either.
So by your logic, since the old testament doesn't mention these new testament people's names, they all have to be a bunch of lies so states your logic.

“Good day to you!”

Since: Oct 08

Earth

#22939 Apr 2, 2013
fedupwiththemess wrote:
<quoted text>If the bible is GOD's holy word why do you need the book of mormon that is NOT GOD's holy word?
Like Dana, you need to consider the implications of what you say and what it means in other contexts.
Not a single book in the old testament or new testament states what is called "the Christian Bible" is God's holy word. Never stated, never written.
Also, it was never stated nor never written by God through a prophet or by a prophet's opinion that the holy words of God that God has been giving to mankind for thousands of years, it was never written and never stated that his holy words would one day be compressed into a book with a beginning and an ending and the word of God would cease to be.
Now the devil might teach such a concept to those like you who see through a dark glass, that all God has to say should be bound in a single volume called a Bible, but God never taught for thousands of years and would never teach now such a concept at all.
God's word's have no limitation to being or existing. They neither can be contained in a single book called the Bible. God taught no such thing. Men teach that thing, not God. Learn the difference.
Limiting God's word is to limit the power of God. You seem to have no problem doing that, limiting God's power. One day you'll have to explain that to God, how you stuck him and his words in a book with a beginning and an ending.

“Good day to you!”

Since: Oct 08

Earth

#22940 Apr 2, 2013
fedupwiththemess wrote:
<quoted text>The bible does not mention to believe in the book of mormon. Why is that book not in the bible?
Neither the Torah nor any other Jewish writings mention a time to come to believe in a book called the new testament either. Why is that book not mentioned in the old testament? Same question you asked about the BOM...waiting....

“Good day to you!”

Since: Oct 08

Earth

#22941 Apr 2, 2013
Dana Robertson wrote:
<quoted text>
A non-Mormon source doesn't always equal being right either. The man gave his opinion, that is all.
The person set aside personal beliefs and read the verse as it was written, not as they wanted to interpret it as you continue to do.
Let's see what you will do to deny the obvious relationship between Matt 24:38 and Mark 12:25 in which Jesus spoke about "MARRYING AND BEING GIVEN IN MARRIAGE".

Mark 12:25...Jesus stated...
"For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven."

Matt 24:38...Jesus stated...
New International Version (©2011)
For in the days before the flood, people were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, up to the day Noah entered the ark;
New Living Translation (©2007)
In those days before the flood, the people were enjoying banquets and parties and weddings right up to the time Noah entered his boat.
Jumbo

Salt Lake City, UT

#22942 Apr 2, 2013
Livinginthelandofcrazy wrote:
<quoted text>
Hey Jubmo! Here's an idea since you have none of your own. When you ripoff other people's thoughts or ideas, GIVE CREDIT WHERE CREDIT IS DUE! CITE YOUR SOURCES!
http://bible-truth.org/whoisgod.htm
Uh huh, I'll keep citing until your big eyes pooped out....they are true and right on the nail....you don't have anything to say, don't you! You cult idiot!
Jumbo

Salt Lake City, UT

#22943 Apr 2, 2013
Who is the One Mormons Call Elohim?

For centuries Christians have professed their belief in a God who is God alone (Is. 44:8), self-existent (Is. 43:10; 48:12), transcendent (Num. 23:19; Ps. 50:21), immutable (Ps. 102:27; Is. 46:10; Mal. 3:6), eternal (Ps. 90:2; 93:2), omnipresent (1 Kings 8:27; Prov. 15:3; Is. 66:1; Jer. 23: 23, 24), and incorporeal (John 4:24; Col. 1:15; 1 Tim. 1:17). He is also a God who dwells in the believer (Eph. 3:17; 4:6; Rom. 8:9) and is omnipotent (Job 42:2; Ps. 115:3; Matt. 19:26). Mormons insist that their God, the one they call Elohim, is the Christian God. Why then are his attributes so different from the God who is declared in the Bible?

The god of Mormonism is one of many gods.

Joseph Smith, the founder of Mormonism, stated, "I wish to declare I have always and in all congregations when I have preached on the subject of the Deity, it has been the plurality of Gods" (History of the Church 6:474).

Brigham Young, the second prophet and president of the LDS Church, said, "How many Gods there are, I do not know. But there never was a time when there were not Gods..." (Journal of Discourses 7:333).

The god of Mormonism is not self-existent.

Mormon Apostle Orson Pratt taught, "We were begotten by our Father in Heaven; the person of our Father in Heaven was begotten on a previous heavenly world by His Father; and again, He was begotten by a still more ancient Father, and so one, from one generation to generation" (The Seer, pg. 132).

The god of Mormonism is not transcendent.

While the God of the Bible makes it clear that He is not like man, Mormon leaders have insisted that their God is an exalted human being.

Joseph Smith declared, "God himself was once as we are now, and is an exalted man, and sits enthroned in yonder heavens!" (Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, pg. 345).

Mormon Apostle John Widtsoe stated, "God and man are of the same race, differing only in their degrees of advancement" (Gospel Through the Ages, pg. 107).

This concurs with Mormon Apostle Parley P. Pratt's comment which states, "God, angels, and men are all of the same species, one race, one great family..." (Key to the Science of Theology, 1978 ed., pg. 21).

The god of Mormonism is not immutable.

Whereas God's perfection makes it never necessary for Him to change, the God of Mormonism changes both in his physical person and moral attributes. This is demonstrated by the fact that he evolved from a man into a God and that he has changed decrees which are theoretically "unalterable." Examples of this would include the abandonment of polygamy in 1890, the reversal of the ban which withheld the LDS Priesthood from Blacks in 1978, and the changes in the LDS temple ceremony in 1980.

The god of Mormonism is not eternally God.

Joseph Smith taught that God was not always God when he stated, "We have imagined and supposed that God was God from all eternity. I will refute that idea, and take away the veil, so that you may see" (Teachings, pg. 345).

“Good day to you!”

Since: Oct 08

Earth

#22944 Apr 2, 2013
Dana Robertson wrote:
<quoted text>
And having any office that requires having only one wife to be known as blameless shows that God doesn't approve of polygamy, he may allow it, but he doesn't approve of it.
Some more of your bs...lol. You can't show a single verse in the entire Bible where IN ACTUAL CONTEXT God declares he doesn't approve of polygamy. And that eats you up like a bad virus corrupting your pc. So you grab at any straws you can to show your opinion is God's opinion even when God gave no opinion.
I have shown more circumstantial evidence that God favours polygamy than you'll ever find to show he disapproves of it. He allowed some of his most powerful Biblical figures to partake in polygamy and that's a fact that is so bitter for you to swallow.
God took the wives of Saul and gave them to David, another fact in scripture you love to hate.
Believe as you wish. But quit thinking for God. You're not good at it at all.
Jumbo

Salt Lake City, UT

#22945 Apr 2, 2013
#1: Polygamy, the Defining Doctrine. Beginning with church founder Joseph Smith's private foray into plural marriage in the late 1830s, polygamy grew in importance until it became the defining doctrine of Mormonism. Historian (and Mormon) Kathleen Flake has noted that in the second half of the 19th century, polygamy was as important to Mormons as baptism was to Catholics. Church leaders at the highest levels taught not only its importance, but also its permanence. Ultimately, two Apostles -- the second-highest office in the Church -- were expelled from their offices for their intransigence in the face of institutional extinction at the hands of a federal government that viewed polygamy as the last "relic of barbarism," and was empowered by the Edmunds-Tucker Act of 1887 to give Mormonism an all-or-nothing ultimatum. Yet even after an 1890 "Manifesto" publicly disavowing the practice, some Mormon leaders (and many church members) continued its practice in secret. While the Church now summarily excommunicates any members who practice polygamy, the history dies a slow death.

#2: Fundamentalism. In the 1920s, a small group of Mormon men who refused to renounce polygamy, instead let go of the Mormon Church and created their own. Under the general title of Mormon Fundamentalism, this movement has subdivided and morphed countless times and into countless factions, the most notorious in current times being Warren Jeffs' FLDS (Fundamentalist Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints). While neither the number of denominations nor the number of practitioners is known, estimates generally exceed 50,000 polygamists in the United States today. Yet in spite of a Supreme Court decision (Reynolds v United States, 1878) upholding anti-polygamy laws, state and federal officials refuse to prosecute on grounds of polygamy (Jeffs was convicted of statutory rape, among other non-polygamy charges), wary of allowing the current Supreme Court to revisit, and perhaps reverse, their 1878 decision. Thus, polygamy continues to thrive, and despite Mormonism's disavowal of Fundamentalism, Fundamentalists have not returned the favor. Indeed, rather than distancing themselves from the LDS Church, they often claim that they, alone, now practice True Mormonism.

#3: Evasiveness. While the Church has renounced polygamy politically, it has never done so theologically. This ambiguity has haunted them ever since. Mormonism is unique in its doctrine of eternal families -- meaning that spouses married in Mormon temples will be "sealed" to each other and their offspring as functioning family units even in the afterlife. Current church policy allows a man whose wife has died to be "sealed," in a temple, to another woman, with the promise that both wives will be part of his eternal family unit. This raises the question: "Is polygamy delayed, polygamy denied?"

When asked about polygamy, church officials as well as ordinary Mormons often claim that it was never truly central to Mormon belief. The tour of Brigham Young's house never mentions his 50-plus wives. Nor was polygamy ever mentioned in the Joseph Smith exhibition at the Library of Congress a few years ago. It is precisely this evasiveness that sustains the untruth that polygamy is alive and well. Similar evasiveness about other beliefs and practices also fuels another enduring stereotype that we will take up in a future column: "Mormons are slippery. They don't tell us what they believe." True or false?

 
Jumbo

Salt Lake City, UT

#22946 Apr 2, 2013
Is Polygamy Part of God's Plan for Marriage?

When God created humans He instituted His plan for marriage: one man should have one wife. In Genesis 2:18 we read: "And the LORD God said, It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him an help meet for him." Verse 22 relates the creation of Eve, again showing that there was to be just one woman for each man. Verse 24 states: "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife; and they shall be one flesh."

The first mention of polygamy in the Bible is Genesis 4:19: "And Lamech [a descendant of Cain] took unto him two wives..."

If there was ever a justification for polygamy it would seem to have been needed when Adam and Eve were to populate the earth. Yet we see the pattern of just one woman and one man.

The same pattern is carried out by Noah at the time of the Ark (Genesis 7:7). Noah took his one wife into the ark. Again, if polygamy were ordained of God, why didn't He tell Noah to take additional wives to repopulate the earth faster?

God instructed Moses that the kings of Israel were to have only one wife: "Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away." (Deut. 17:17)

This is exactly what happened with Solomon. We read in I Kings 11:4:

For it came to pass, when Solomon was old, that his wives turned away his heart after other gods: and his heart was not perfect with the LORD his God, as was the heart of David his father.

David's heart was right with God because he did not turn to other gods, not because he practiced polygamy.

LDS will sometimes point to 2 Samuel 12:8 to prove that David's wives were approved by God. But that verse indicates that he inherited Saul's wives, not that David actually married them by God's appointment. It was the custom of the time for the succeeding ruler to receive all of the prior ruler's property and women. This is not a proof that God intends people to practice polygamy. It is contrary to the pattern of marriage established with Adam and Eve and His instructions in Deuteronomy.

Just as divorce was permitted, so too was polygamy. But it does not represent God's will. In Matt. 19:3-9 the Pharisees asked Jesus about divorce and Jesus answered:
Jumbo

Salt Lake City, UT

#22947 Apr 2, 2013
Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife; and they twain [two] shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain [two], but one flesh.

The Pharisees then asked him why Moses allowed for divorce. Jesus answered:

Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so (Matt. 19:7).

In the New Testament the practice of polygamy would have kept a man from leadership in the church. Paul instructed Timothy: "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife..." (I Tim. 3:2)

Paul also wrote to Titus: "...ordain elders in every city...if any be blameless, the husband of one wife..." (Titus 1:6)

Even the Book of Mormon condemns polygamy. In Jacob 2:24 we read: "Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord."

Mormons will sometimes appeal to Jacob 2:30, saying God could make exceptions to verse 24 and command polygamy. It says: "For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things [instruction in Jacob 2:24]."

This verse seems to indicate that the reason God would order the practice of plural wives would be to speed up reproduction ("raise up seed"). Since Joseph Smith's polygamy did not achieve this (as there are only a couple of children suspected to be from Smith's plural wives) it would appear that Jacob 2:30 would not apply.

Also, Smith seems to have begun practicing polygamy even before his revelation, Doctrine and Covenants, section 132. Verse 52 instructs Smith's wife, Emma, to "receive all those that have been given unto my servant Joseph, and who are virtuous and pure before me; and those who are not pure, and have said they were pure, shall be destroyed, saith the Lord God."

Mormons will sometimes argue that the date on the revelation (July 12, 1843) is only the date when the revelation was committed to paper, not when it was actually given. But verse 52 demonstrates that Smith had already taken plural wives before the revelation was given, no matter what the date. The second half of verse 52 seems to suggest that Smith had also taken some women as wives who were not virtuous.

As Christians we turn to Jesus for our view of heaven. He never taught anything about the necessity of marriage either in this life or the life to come. Also, the idea of marrying in a temple was foreign to both Jews and Christians during New Testament times. In Luke 20:34-36 we read:

And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage: But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage: Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection.

Since: Sep 12

Ozark, MO

#22948 Apr 2, 2013
Jumbo wrote:
<quoted text>Uh huh, I'll keep citing until your big eyes pooped out....they are true and right on the nail....you don't have anything to say, don't you! You cult idiot!
And you have absolutely no original thought of your own, so you ripoff other people's and present it as your own. That's called plagiarism. Got caught, didn't you, you blow hard.

Since: Sep 12

Ozark, MO

#22949 Apr 2, 2013
Jumbo wrote:
Who is the One Mormons Call Elohim?

For centuries Christians have professed their belief in a God who is God alone (Is. 44:8), self-existent (Is. 43:10; 48:12), transcendent (Num. 23:19; Ps. 50:21), immutable (Ps. 102:27; Is. 46:10; Mal. 3:6), eternal (Ps. 90:2; 93:2), omnipresent (1 Kings 8:27; Prov. 15:3; Is. 66:1; Jer. 23: 23, 24), and incorporeal (John 4:24; Col. 1:15; 1 Tim. 1:17). He is also a God who dwells in the believer (Eph. 3:17; 4:6; Rom. 8:9) and is omnipotent (Job 42:2; Ps. 115:3; Matt. 19:26). Mormons insist that their God, the one they call Elohim, is the Christian God. Why then are his attributes so different from the God who is declared in the Bible?

The god of Mormonism is one of many gods.

Joseph Smith, the founder of Mormonism, stated, "I wish to declare I have always and in all congregations when I have preached on the subject of the Deity, it has been the plurality of Gods" (History of the Church 6:474).

Brigham Young, the second prophet and president of the LDS Church, said, "How many Gods there are, I do not know. But there never was a time when there were not Gods..." (Journal of Discourses 7:333).

The god of Mormonism is not self-existent.

Mormon Apostle Orson Pratt taught, "We were begotten by our Father in Heaven; the person of our Father in Heaven was begotten on a previous heavenly world by His Father; and again, He was begotten by a still more ancient Father, and so one, from one generation to generation" (The Seer, pg. 132).

The god of Mormonism is not transcendent.

While the God of the Bible makes it clear that He is not like man, Mormon leaders have insisted that their God is an exalted human being.

Joseph Smith declared, "God himself was once as we are now, and is an exalted man, and sits enthroned in yonder heavens!" (Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, pg. 345).

Mormon Apostle John Widtsoe stated, "God and man are of the same race, differing only in their degrees of advancement" (Gospel Through the Ages, pg. 107).

This concurs with Mormon Apostle Parley P. Pratt's comment which states, "God, angels, and men are all of the same species, one race, one great family..." (Key to the Science of Theology, 1978 ed., pg. 21).

The god of Mormonism is not immutable.

Whereas God's perfection makes it never necessary for Him to change, the God of Mormonism changes both in his physical person and moral attributes. This is demonstrated by the fact that he evolved from a man into a God and that he has changed decrees which are theoretically "unalterable." Examples of this would include the abandonment of polygamy in 1890, the reversal of the ban which withheld the LDS Priesthood from Blacks in 1978, and the changes in the LDS temple ceremony in 1980.

The god of Mormonism is not eternally God.

Joseph Smith taught that God was not always God when he stated, "We have imagined and supposed that God was God from all eternity. I will refute that idea, and take away the veil, so that you may see" (Teachings, pg. 345).
Zzzz...

Since: Sep 12

Ozark, MO

#22950 Apr 2, 2013
Jumbo wrote:
Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife; and they twain [two] shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain [two], but one flesh.

The Pharisees then asked him why Moses allowed for divorce. Jesus answered:

Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so (Matt. 19:7).

In the New Testament the practice of polygamy would have kept a man from leadership in the church. Paul instructed Timothy: "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife..." (I Tim. 3:2)

Paul also wrote to Titus: "...ordain elders in every city...if any be blameless, the husband of one wife..." (Titus 1:6)

Even the Book of Mormon condemns polygamy. In Jacob 2:24 we read: "Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord."

Mormons will sometimes appeal to Jacob 2:30, saying God could make exceptions to verse 24 and command polygamy. It says: "For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things [instruction in Jacob 2:24]."

This verse seems to indicate that the reason God would order the practice of plural wives would be to speed up reproduction ("raise up seed"). Since Joseph Smith's polygamy did not achieve this (as there are only a couple of children suspected to be from Smith's plural wives) it would appear that Jacob 2:30 would not apply.

Also, Smith seems to have begun practicing polygamy even before his revelation, Doctrine and Covenants, section 132. Verse 52 instructs Smith's wife, Emma, to "receive all those that have been given unto my servant Joseph, and who are virtuous and pure before me; and those who are not pure, and have said they were pure, shall be destroyed, saith the Lord God."

Mormons will sometimes argue that the date on the revelation (July 12, 1843) is only the date when the revelation was committed to paper, not when it was actually given. But verse 52 demonstrates that Smith had already taken plural wives before the revelation was given, no matter what the date. The second half of verse 52 seems to suggest that Smith had also taken some women as wives who were not virtuous.

As Christians we turn to Jesus for our view of heaven. He never taught anything about the necessity of marriage either in this life or the life to come. Also, the idea of marrying in a temple was foreign to both Jews and Christians during New Testament times. In Luke 20:34-36 we read:

And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage: But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage: Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection.
All copy and paste. All copy and paste...

Since: Sep 12

Ozark, MO

#22951 Apr 2, 2013
Jumbo wrote:
Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife; and they twain [two] shall be one flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain [two], but one flesh.

The Pharisees then asked him why Moses allowed for divorce. Jesus answered:

Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so (Matt. 19:7).

In the New Testament the practice of polygamy would have kept a man from leadership in the church. Paul instructed Timothy: "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife..." (I Tim. 3:2)

Paul also wrote to Titus: "...ordain elders in every city...if any be blameless, the husband of one wife..." (Titus 1:6)

Even the Book of Mormon condemns polygamy. In Jacob 2:24 we read: "Behold, David and Solomon truly had many wives and concubines, which thing was abominable before me, saith the Lord."

Mormons will sometimes appeal to Jacob 2:30, saying God could make exceptions to verse 24 and command polygamy. It says: "For if I will, saith the Lord of Hosts, raise up seed unto me, I will command my people; otherwise they shall hearken unto these things [instruction in Jacob 2:24]."

This verse seems to indicate that the reason God would order the practice of plural wives would be to speed up reproduction ("raise up seed"). Since Joseph Smith's polygamy did not achieve this (as there are only a couple of children suspected to be from Smith's plural wives) it would appear that Jacob 2:30 would not apply.

Also, Smith seems to have begun practicing polygamy even before his revelation, Doctrine and Covenants, section 132. Verse 52 instructs Smith's wife, Emma, to "receive all those that have been given unto my servant Joseph, and who are virtuous and pure before me; and those who are not pure, and have said they were pure, shall be destroyed, saith the Lord God."

Mormons will sometimes argue that the date on the revelation (July 12, 1843) is only the date when the revelation was committed to paper, not when it was actually given. But verse 52 demonstrates that Smith had already taken plural wives before the revelation was given, no matter what the date. The second half of verse 52 seems to suggest that Smith had also taken some women as wives who were not virtuous.

As Christians we turn to Jesus for our view of heaven. He never taught anything about the necessity of marriage either in this life or the life to come. Also, the idea of marrying in a temple was foreign to both Jews and Christians during New Testament times. In Luke 20:34-36 we read:

And Jesus answering said unto them, The children of this world marry, and are given in marriage: But they which shall be accounted worthy to obtain that world, and the resurrection from the dead, neither marry, nor are given in marriage: Neither can they die any more: for they are equal unto the angels; and are the children of God, being the children of the resurrection.
What happened to your original name "Jubmo"? What? Are you so friggin' stupid you can't spell "Jumbo"??? DA...

“Good day to you!”

Since: Oct 08

Earth

#22952 Apr 2, 2013
Dana Robertson wrote:
<quoted text>
There will be no marrying or given in marriage because there will be no people living in marriage. People in this life get married and live together married, in the next life they won't. That is why they will not be marrying. If God was going to keep people married in the next life, he would certainly also allow people to marry. Why would he have one without the other? Doesn't make sense. He clearly answered the question. Even some of the people there said so.
lolol..."There will be no marrying or given in marriage because there will be no people living in marriage."...are you bonkers? What in the *ell do already married couples have to do with non-married people? Are the married couples marrying non married couples? That's the logic you just stated in saying..."There will be no marrying or given in marriage because there will be no people living in marriage."
......
Now this is an actual relevant question, you thought outside the box...
"If God was going to keep people married in the next life, he would certainly also allow people to marry. Why would he have one without the other? Doesn't make sense."
The answers to this you won't like as they have implications to possible answers the NT doesn't claim either way pro or con.
What if marriage, one of the most sacred covenants God told man to partake in, one of his first commandments, what if God gave an allowance for marriage in this life only and not the next? That would explain Jesus's statement that marrying and being given in marriage, it won't happen in the afterlife because God commanded marriage of us in this life.
Marriage is a sacred covenant God instituted for all of us to obey and partake in regardless. He didn't make any amendments for sexual orientation or people that wouldn't want to marry or people that would have no interest in relationships and marrying. It was a commandment given to each of us in this mortal probation. There was never any option given for marrying or being given in marriage in this life and in the afterlife. Marriage was a commandment for this life only so far as it was worded by God.
And Jesus's statement that their would be no marrying or being given in marriage in the afterlife confirms marriage is an action of just mortality only which implies you have just this life to obey that command to marry.
If you read the old Jewish writings on this topic, which you should to understand these verses better, 2000 years ago Jews not only entertained the belief of eternal marriage, but some also believed in marrying and being given in marriage in the afterlife. They believed this latter thing because they thought if you didn't get married in this life, then surely God would afford those not married in this life to be married in the next life. It made sense to them to believe that. And the sadducees new these Jewish beliefs. And Jesus would have known them also.
So when Jesus was asked about who's husband would the wife belong to, instead of answering the question, Jesus decided to tell them that the concept/belief of Jews that they could marry and be given in marriage in the afterlife, it was a false belief. Jesus didn't tell them which husband the wife would belong to. His actual answer to that question was they didn't understand the power of God. The power of God concerning marriage in this life. He told them they didn't understand it.

“Good day to you!”

Since: Oct 08

Earth

#22953 Apr 2, 2013
Dana Robertson wrote:
<quoted text>
A clear plain statement is twisted thinking. You silly claim he didn't answer them is. You make Jesus out to be an idiot.
They asked him a question about the resurrection and marriage, he gave them an answer about the resurrection and marriage.
Let's go at this as it was said.

Matt 22:28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.
Matt 22:29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
Their is Jesus's answer. "..Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God." The answer did not answer their question. Jesus didn't tell them who's wife she'd belong to in the afterlife or, that she would be none of their wife in the afterlife. Jesus didn't answer the question. So no matter how many times you want to think he gave an answer, he actually didn't.
Now what Jesus did say as a FOLLOW UP REMARK that really had nothing to do with their actual question was...
Matt 22:30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.
Angels in heaven that never came to this earth, they never had a chance to obey the command to marry as God commanded it of us that would come to this earth. This answer reflected a belief of Jews that in the afterlife, those of us coming here that didn't marry in mortality, Jews believed we would have a second chance to marry in the afterlife.
Again Jesus's answer here had nothing to do with whose husband would the widow belong to. Jesus was addressing a false belief that God allowed us in mortality to have two chances at marriage, one in mortality and one in the afterlife. Jesus was elaborating that belief was false and wrong and not a teaching of God. He was stating that those who didn't marry in mortality, they would be as the angels in heaven, single and unmarried.
Jesus's answers in no way addressed the actual question about a marriage in mortality continuing to exist in the afterlife.
Jumbo

Salt Lake City, UT

#22954 Apr 2, 2013
Livinginthelandofcrazy wrote:
<quoted text>
What happened to your original name "Jubmo"? What? Are you so friggin' stupid you can't spell "Jumbo"??? DA...
Yep copy and paste to Exposé ur nasty cult, idiot moron!!!!!!!!!!
Jumbo

Salt Lake City, UT

#22955 Apr 2, 2013
No Surprise wrote:
<quoted text>
Let's go at this as it was said.
Matt 22:28 Therefore in the resurrection whose wife shall she be of the seven? for they all had her.
Matt 22:29 Jesus answered and said unto them, Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God.
Their is Jesus's answer. "..Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God." The answer did not answer their question. Jesus didn't tell them who's wife she'd belong to in the afterlife or, that she would be none of their wife in the afterlife. Jesus didn't answer the question. So no matter how many times you want to think he gave an answer, he actually didn't.
Now what Jesus did say as a FOLLOW UP REMARK that really had nothing to do with their actual question was...
Matt 22:30 For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven.
Angels in heaven that never came to this earth, they never had a chance to obey the command to marry as God commanded it of us that would come to this earth. This answer reflected a belief of Jews that in the afterlife, those of us coming here that didn't marry in mortality, Jews believed we would have a second chance to marry in the afterlife.
Again Jesus's answer here had nothing to do with whose husband would the widow belong to. Jesus was addressing a false belief that God allowed us in mortality to have two chances at marriage, one in mortality and one in the afterlife. Jesus was elaborating that belief was false and wrong and not a teaching of God. He was stating that those who didn't marry in mortality, they would be as the angels in heaven, single and unmarried.
Jesus's answers in no way addressed the actual question about a marriage in mortality continuing to exist in the afterlife.
Oh shut up with your false interpretation of the scriptures, you polygamist idiot who worship a polygamist god!!

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