First off, I've never come to this site and claimed to be a lawyer.<quoted text>
The court DECRIMINALIZES,they do NOT legalize.
14 States still have laws on the books which declare sodomy ILLEGAL. The court cannot change that, the legislature must retract or repeal those laws. Until those states take such steps the act of sodomy in those states is ILLEGAL. The court cannot change that.
What the court can do, and is in fact what they did do, is DECRIMINALIZE sodomy. They remove the States ability to enforce or prosecute. You could in fact still be cited in those states for sodomy, the DA would then decide to pursue the charges. The court would then hear the case, and could apply stare decisis or not, and challenge the higher court. If it follows precedent, the State could appeal and likely the SCOTUS would simply ignore them. If the lower court challenges them, the SCOTUS would likely reverse the decision.
While the outcome essentially makes the practice "legal", the actual result is DECRIMINALIZATION. This also has to do with the fact that the Judiciary lacks the ability to legislate or "draft" law, they lack the power to make something legal or illegal
Like I said, if you are going to pretend to be a lawyer, learn the lingo.
Second, I don't know why you want to quibble over this issue. The fact of the matter is that gay sex is "legal" because it is no longer "illegal".
When you "decriminalize" something, then it is no longer a criminal offense.
Heterosexual intercourse is not a criminal offense. Homosexual intercourse is not a criminal offense.
You don't have to be Perry Mason to understand these concepts.