Explain this passage given that you make reference to Isaac being BORN in the land and ALREADY had it .<quoted text>
absolutely not. You are the one who has rejected the passage that I have cited all along. I have paraphrased it in English. I have quoted it in transliterated Hebrew. And you give no reason for having so rejected it. G-d gave guidelines on how to behave--including the one I have cited. Moses did not so behave. Moses doesn't get to go across the Jordan.
Genesis 26:3 " Sojourn in this land, and I will be with thee(Isaac), and will bless thee; for unto thee, and unto thy seed, I WILL GIVE all these countries, and I will perform the oath which I sware unto Abraham thy father"
If Isaac already had the land, how can God speak of GIVING it to him? HOW? Note, "I WILL GIVE"