How does "A man and a woman" explicitly ban same sex marriage but only implicitly ban polygamy?<quoted text>
Implicit vs explicit
The language used in Prop 8 does not legally satisfy banning polygamy. You can change the subject all you want, but the fact remains Prop 8 did not ban polygamy. It did ban gay couples from marrying, who previously had the right. Prop 8 went down. Gay couples can marry again.
Before Prop 8, no polygamy
After Prop 8 no polygamy.
I think it's HILARIOUS that you continue to make ridiculous arguments about "a man and a woman" means no polygamy, when we are talking about LAW! HILARIOUS! It must be explicit to ban behavior. Ask your Magic 8 Ball.
If there were no law against polygamy and prop 8 wasn't struck down would polygamy be allowed in CA?
Does a man and a woman mean three men? Does it mean a man and two women?