How exactly have I "mis-stated" your claim?<quoted text>
I'm not interested in your mis-statement of what I said. All you right-wing clowns are way too clever (you think) for your own good.
Strictly for the sake of those who can read and desire information:
Sales taxes do not differentiate based on people’s ability to pay. All are equal before the cash register. The Wall Street banker is treated no differently than the lowly paid schoolteacher. Therefore all are required to pay the same tax rate regardless of income. The result is a tax scheme that takes more from the middle class and the poor than the wealthy.
Quoting you verbatim - you're claiming that under a sales tax, "all are required to pay the same tax rate regardless of income," (correct - same tax rate on each dollar they SPEND), and that a sales tax "... takes more from the middle class and the poor than the wealthy." Which I reasonably interpret as meaning you are claiming a sales tax extracts more dollars from the pocket of a poor or middle class individual than a wealthy one.
The only way this can be true if if poor and middle class individuals SPEND a larger dollar amount than wealthy individuals do - which is a patently ridiculous claim.
So please do explain how I have "mis-stated" your claim - and while you're at it, please link the authoritative objective evidence that backs up your claim.