****** We Loan Against Leased Instrum...

****** We Loan Against Leased Instruments @ 50% LTV************

Posted in the Banking Forum


Decatur, GA

#1 Oct 22, 2009
We are working with a Lender who strictly just monetizes Instruments.
They are loaning about 50% LTV on the Face Value of the Instrument
The whole process takes about 3 weeks from start to Finish
If you have an instrument ranging from 100M and up , we can help

The Instrument has to be
1. Assignable
2. Transferable
3. Callable
4. lienable
5. Cashed Back
6. Top 25 banks

We need the following in order to move forward

1. Full and complete CIS Package
2. Passport
3. Copy of Instrument ( front-back)

Please no broker chains, only serious clients,

Danbury, CT

#2 Oct 22, 2009
The instrument is not owned so it can not be

1. Assignable
2. Transferable
3. Callable
4. lienable


Decatur, GA

#3 Nov 14, 2009
The instrument is not owned so it can not be
1. Assignable
2. Transferable
3. Callable
4. lienable
Get the Facts before you start calling people names, that wasn't very nice of you
Investment Banker


#4 Nov 14, 2009

I think it is you who needs to get the facts. 99.9% of leased instruments require that the leasee's bank indemnifies and or undertakes the leased instrument. In layman terms that means that the leasee's bank, which is the receiving bank for the leasee guarantees that the instrument will be returned unemcumbrered at the end of the lease term.

If the bank allows the leasee to receive a loan against an instrument that they have guaranteed and the loan is not serviced or repayed what recourse does he bank have when the lease term is up and the owner/lessor calls his instrument?. The bank must return the instrument to the owner. So unless there is a lessor who does not require indemnity and or undertaking for his leased instrument, which I doubt no loan may acquired.

peter tucker

Charlotte, MI

#7 May 24, 2012
Does not exist anywhere

Roseville, CA

#24 Jul 24, 2013
This leased instrument can only be monetized if the lender has a passive account (with cash in it). This lender is also aware the instrument is leased. Usually, the lessor will be able to issue this via SWIFT to the lender's bank. Only private lender will do this, banks will not. Why: because without your instrument, the lender cannot withdraw and use the cash. Usually, the lender is able to provide between 20-25% of its face value, whereby you may arrange for a higher amount of guarantee (the instrument) to accomplish your total funding amount. There are not too many lenders like this. Also, the deal must be for either a project funding, company acquisition, a buy-sell or trade, and any other legitimate business transactions; as this is needed by the facilitating bank (that of the lender's, the borrower's, and also the instrument owner's). For the newbies, the entire process of "trials & tribulations" can be very time-consuming, as you will see a lot of "talkers". For those who are already in the arena, it all comes down to this: the lender wants (and needs) an instrument, via SWIFT (MT760), and the issuer wants (and needs) cash against it (via SWIFT MT103). Prior to that, the pre-advise (SWIFT MT799) may be sent to confirm readiness to receive and also availability of funds (this way, the 760 isn't sent in vain/for nothing). Fees: those who do not control liquid assets (cash in hand), won't be able to "play", regardless if they've already paid their fees to the issuer. It's a two way street, it also costs money to access a credit facility (already loaded with ready cash). Anyways, enough ranting... questions can be sent to [email protected] (i'll answer back from time to time)

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