The Moors were not Black
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Since: Dec 09

Brooklyn, NY

#1 May 21, 2010
What is considered "black" in medieval context is much different from what is considered black in the modern sense. When figures during medieval times were reffered to as "black", all they mean was that they are swarthy or darker haired compared to the general population. In the case of the Moors, they were named such because they were dark compared to the Iberian people, but not necessarily SSA. The Moors were Semitic Caucasoids, not blacks and not whites.

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UruEuWauWau

Chicago, IL

#2 May 21, 2010
Galicianknight wrote:
What is considered "black" in medieval context is much different from what is considered black in the modern sense. When figures during medieval times were reffered to as "black", all they mean was that they are swarthy or darker haired compared to the general population. In the case of the Moors, they were named such because they were dark compared to the Iberian people, but not necessarily SSA. The Moors were Semitic Caucasoids, not blacks and not whites.
Nooo, not again!!! Kiddo, was it really necessary to create nth iteration about the Maures????!!!! The concept of what's 'white' & what's 'black' is distorted in the States & it was even more among Maures. Learn the history. They were mostly Berbers, having Arabs as their leaders & sub-Saharan black people as their slaves or lowest caste servants & rarely soldiers. Ya dig?! Consider this thread superfluous & closed. When they reached Iberia many Maures were a mixture of Arabs, Berbers & sub-Saharan black people.
Barros Serrano

United States

#3 May 21, 2010
The Berbers, who constituted most of the Moors, were descended from several waves of Mideasterners. The first had been similar to Cro-Magnon, and entered by 30,000 years ago. They are referred to as Mechtoid or Afalou.

The next wave was 10,000 years ago, called Capsian, and also Mideastern. These are in fact the same people as the Mideastern Semites of haplotype J. Then another wave of Mideasterners arrived bearing the Neolithic, and probably the languages of Egypt and the Berbers.

“As Above,So Below”

Since: Feb 10

The Resurrection

#4 May 21, 2010
Why do Latino's still use the word 'Moreno' to describe a so-called black person?

http://members.fortunecity.com/squaredmc/anci...

The Moors must be distinguished from the Berbers who were a mixed race people in North Africa resulting from the intermarriage between caucasian Libyans and indigenous Africans. Black Africans had beem called Maures ('dark') by the Greeks in antiquity and no distinction had been made between The Moorish tribes which would later invade Spain and their Black African kin. There was also to be an Arab component to these peoples and in order for this to be put in context, the racial composition of Arabia in antiquity must be understood. Much of the Arabian peninsular had originally been populated by Blacks. The area was a colony of the kingdom of Kush. Southern Arabia, in particular, remained black for a considerable period as the Greeks themselves attest.
Barros Serrano

United States

#5 May 21, 2010
LOL... here we go... the Greeks called someone Maures, and that proves NOTHING!

The BERBERS have been in North Africa for 30,000 years. Most "Moors" were Berbers. Others were Arabs and black Africans. Arabia was originally Mideastern, of J type, same as Arabs and Jews today. Those Eurasians had been in Arabia for tens of millenia before the historic migrations of blacks into Yemen, which added a significant % of African ancestry to southern Arabia, but not the majority of it.

The original Arabians were J-type Mideasterners. The Semitic languages, in fact, are now shown to have originated in Eurasia as well, not in Africa, and to have spread from the Mideast into Ethiopia, Egypt and North Africa.

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“As Above,So Below”

Since: Feb 10

The Resurrection

#6 May 21, 2010
Barros Serrano wrote:
LOL... here we go... the Greeks called someone Maures, and that proves NOTHING!
The BERBERS have been in North Africa for 30,000 years. Most "Moors" were Berbers. Others were Arabs and black Africans. Arabia was originally Mideastern, of J type, same as Arabs and Jews today. Those Eurasians had been in Arabia for tens of millenia before the historic migrations of blacks into Yemen, which added a significant % of African ancestry to southern Arabia, but not the majority of it.
The original Arabians were J-type Mideasterners. The Semitic languages, in fact, are now shown to have originated in Eurasia as well, not in Africa, and to have spread from the Mideast into Ethiopia, Egypt and North Africa.
Dont run..

http://www.topix.com/forum/afam/TKKHV4U8K5B35...
Barros Serrano

United States

#7 May 21, 2010
Don't have an argument? Right...

The evidence is clear, and supports everything I stated.

“DANGER!!”

Level 8

Since: Feb 08

Location hidden

#8 May 21, 2010
__Peace__ wrote:
Why do Latino's still use the word 'Moreno' to describe a so-called black person?
http://members.fortunecity.com/squaredmc/anci...
The Moors must be distinguished from the Berbers who were a mixed race people in North Africa resulting from the intermarriage between caucasian Libyans and indigenous Africans. Black Africans had beem called Maures ('dark') by the Greeks in antiquity and no distinction had been made between The Moorish tribes which would later invade Spain and their Black African kin. There was also to be an Arab component to these peoples and in order for this to be put in context, the racial composition of Arabia in antiquity must be understood. Much of the Arabian peninsular had originally been populated by Blacks. The area was a colony of the kingdom of Kush. Southern Arabia, in particular, remained black for a considerable period as the Greeks themselves attest.
The Greeks had NOTHING TO DO WITH TO DO WITH THIS.

You obviously are not even slightly adept, in the word usage of Spanish, of this, or any other time.

First you ask a question, and then proceed with your diatribe, as if you already knew the answer, which, obviously, you do NOT.

The term 'MORENO' is a rather loose, and relativistic quantification, meaning ONLY 'dark', and would have been meant more euphemistically, when referring to those, whom the Spanish would, at that time, have considered to be NEGROS(blacks).

Furthermore, even the term 'NEGRO' was of a somewhat loose meaning, since even OTHER Peoples, NOT from Africa, were ALSO referred to as being 'NEGROS', such as the People of Southern India, South America, and even the Philippines, for instance.

Most importantly, for all of you who have been foolishly misled by all the nonsense emanating from African-American-Centric pseudo anthropology, the only Moors, that are left, today, are the North Moroccan Amazigh/Berbers. They are Eurasian 'E1b1b1', but NOT so much 'J', and almost NO Sub-Saharan/West African 'A','B', or even E1b1a.

FYI, the 'E1b1b' East Africans, such as the Kush, Ethiopians, and Somalis are more connected genetically to Eurasians, than they are to Sub-Saharan/West Africans.

Not that the East Africans were involved with the MOROS, but when it comes to East Africans, the term 'Black', and/or 'NEGRO' is of a relatively MORE loose application, than when used in reference to Sub-Saharan/West Africans.
AfricanPride

Canada

#9 May 21, 2010
Curious Me wrote:
<quoted text>
The Greeks had NOTHING TO DO WITH TO DO WITH THIS.
You obviously are not even slightly adept, in the word usage of Spanish, of this, or any other time.
First you ask a question, and then proceed with your diatribe, as if you already knew the answer, which, obviously, you do NOT.
The term 'MORENO' is a rather loose, and relativistic quantification, meaning ONLY 'dark', and would have been meant more euphemistically, when referring to those, whom the Spanish would, at that time, have considered to be NEGROS(blacks).
Furthermore, even the term 'NEGRO' was of a somewhat loose meaning, since even OTHER Peoples, NOT from Africa, were ALSO referred to as being 'NEGROS', such as the People of Southern India, South America, and even the Philippines, for instance.
Most importantly, for all of you who have been foolishly misled by all the nonsense emanating from African-American-Centric pseudo anthropology, the only Moors, that are left, today, are the North Moroccan Amazigh/Berbers. They are Eurasian 'E1b1b1', but NOT so much 'J', and almost NO Sub-Saharan/West African 'A','B', or even E1b1a.
FYI, the 'E1b1b' East Africans, such as the Kush, Ethiopians, and Somalis are more connected genetically to Eurasians, than they are to Sub-Saharan/West Africans.
Not that the East Africans were involved with the MOROS, but when it comes to East Africans, the term 'Black', and/or 'NEGRO' is of a relatively MORE loose application, than when used in reference to Sub-Saharan/West Africans.
This joker is back trying very hard again to push his Eurocentric babble.

LMBFAO @

"FYI, the 'E1b1b' East Africans, such as the Kush, Ethiopians, and Somalis are more connected genetically to Eurasians, than they are to Sub-Saharan/West Africans."

bwahahahahahaha.....

I told these clowns are now pushing hard to reclassify what is really Black because they just can't take Egypt and North East Africa out of Black Africa no matter how hard they try.
Jeff

Framingham, MA

#10 May 21, 2010
The term Maures is a Latin word.

“DANGER!!”

Level 8

Since: Feb 08

Location hidden

#12 May 21, 2010
TRUE BLACK POWER FOREVER wrote:
these soulless vampires are grasping at straws. their bullshit lies are being debunked greatly by learned black men and women. these sun cursed beasts are working overtime spreading their lies and propaganda. GIVE IT UP WHITEY!!!
You know, listening to YOU ignorant @§§·H©LES, one might even begin to wonder if there really IS such a thing, as a learned black man.

You're all just a pathetic bunch of sadly deluded freakin' imbeciles.

Even though, I am quite certain, that NONE of you have the mental capacity to comprehend the ramifications, of scientific reports, having to do with the actual genetics, of this particular issue,
here it is, anyway:

http://www.nature.com/ejhg/journal/v13/n7/ful...
blacks done invent dat

Peterborough, UK

#14 May 22, 2010
__Peace__ wrote:
Why do Latino's still use the word 'Moreno' to describe a so-called black person?
http://members.fortunecity.com/squaredmc/anci...
The Moors must be distinguished from the Berbers who were a mixed race people in North Africa resulting from the intermarriage between caucasian Libyans and indigenous Africans. Black Africans had beem called Maures ('dark') by the Greeks in antiquity and no distinction had been made between The Moorish tribes which would later invade Spain and their Black African kin. There was also to be an Arab component to these peoples and in order for this to be put in context, the racial composition of Arabia in antiquity must be understood. Much of the Arabian peninsular had originally been populated by Blacks. The area was a colony of the kingdom of Kush. Southern Arabia, in particular, remained black for a considerable period as the Greeks themselves attest.
where do you get this from? Spain was never part of a "Kingdom of Cush". There were no negroes there and the Moors were NOT NEGROES at all.
XlBlackWomenLove rlX

UK

#15 May 22, 2010
Here let me settle this...We will let actual MOORS state their side of the story.

Al-Maqdisi [tenth century] wrote,“... As for the Zanji, they are people of black color, flat noses, kinky hair, and little understanding or intelligence.”

Ibn Khaldun(A MOOR)(d. 1406CE) added that blacks are “only humans who are closer to dumb animals than to rational beings.”

Ibn Hazam(A MOOR)(eleventh century) Wrote. "Negroes in africa neither have books, nor sciences or histories"

Berbers=Moors and there is NO DOUBT ABOUT IT

The Berbers belong to a powerful, formidable, and numerous people; a true people like so many others, the world has seen - like the Arabs, the Persians, the Greeks and the Romans.-- Ibn Khaldun(A MOOR), 14th century scholar

The only people who accept slavery are the Negroes, owing to their low degree of humanity and proximity to the animal stage. Other persons who accept the status of slave do so as a means of attaining high rank, or power, or wealth, as is the case with the Mameluke Turks in the East and with those Franks and Galicians who enter the service of the state [in Spain]-Ibn Khaldun(A MOOR), 14th century scholar

Bottom line...Afrocentrics you have been proven thieves of history.

Why don't you Afrocentrics discover more about HeadHunters, Voodoo Medicine men, construction of Dung Huts and Cannibals? I want to know more about them. Do me a favor, will ya? I promise I will not debunk what you discover. Remember you cannot debunk the truth.



Next!
Jeff

Framingham, MA

#16 May 22, 2010
They are delusional, they don't realize that the original Latin word for Maures just meant someone from Mauretania, there was no racial implication to it. That was changed during the late medieval era and it wasn't applied to all Moors. The definition of words change in cultures all the time from one generation to the other, that is what happened here. Heck the V sign during the early part of the 20th century stood for 'victory', and just a few generations later it stood for piece.

Level 4

Since: Sep 09

Oured,Osea

#17 May 22, 2010
If so, then please tell me why they referred to Martin Lawrence character "Jamaal"(Muslim name) as a MOOR in the movie BLACK KNIGHT?

“As Above,So Below”

Since: Feb 10

The Resurrection

#18 May 22, 2010
The Original Black African Arabs of Arabia: Black African Kingdoms of Arabia)— Ogu Eji-Ofo Anu

http://www.africaresource.com/rasta/sesostris...

Yemen is one of the oldest inhabited portions of the Arabian Peninsula. It includes the entire southwest quarter, which possesses many advantages in climate and soil. Yemen was a colony of early Black Africans until the Arabized Arabs who are described in the preceding paragraph gradually infiltrated it. According to the Catholic Encyclopedia, the Himyarites/Yemenites (and Hadramutians) are the same group of peoples as the African Ethiopians.

They are genetically, linguistically, and physically identical with Ethiopians. This may perhaps explain the reason why the ancient Greeks and Roman writers believed that Arabia was a political extension of Ethiopia Kush.(See Catholic Encyclopedia: Arab)

Even today, the similarity is so striking that one cannot fail to observe the clear connectedness between the Ethiopian tribes who live on both sides of the Red Sea.

http://www.africaresource.com/rasta/sesostris...

WHEN ARABIA WAS “EASTERN ETHIOPIA” Part I – By Dana Marniche
WHEN ARABIA WAS “EASTERN ETHIOPIA” Part I

By Dana Marniche

The Indigenous Populations of Arabia

The following quotes are from 19th and early 20th century Western historians, whom unlike today’s historians, understood the strong connection of the original Arabians with the Ethiopic peoples of Africa.
morrison 73

United States

#19 May 22, 2010
Nerdtician wrote:
If so, then please tell me why they referred to Martin Lawrence character "Jamaal"(Muslim name) as a MOOR in the movie BLACK KNIGHT?
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v =9iDx4RdrASoXX
it shouldn't even be a debate their ELITE and ANCESTORS call us moors and have all thru history....they buy priceless moorish decor....they buy the black ones...not light skinned arab or berber shyt...they get the real deal/authentic...the black ones. They cast black folks for moorish roles... they are simply following the norm/tradition of what they were taught.

“As Above,So Below”

Since: Feb 10

The Resurrection

#20 May 22, 2010
morrison 73 wrote:
<quoted text> it shouldn't even be a debate their ELITE and ANCESTORS call us moors and have all thru history....they buy priceless moorish decor....they buy the black ones...not light skinned arab or berber shyt...they get the real deal/authentic...the black ones. They cast black folks for moorish roles... they are simply following the norm/tradition of what they were taught.
All these clowns can do is hit the 'judge it' icons.
UruEuWauWau

Chicago, IL

#21 May 22, 2010
__Peace__ wrote:
The Original Black African Arabs of Arabia: Black African Kingdoms of Arabia)— Ogu Eji-Ofo Anu
http://www.africaresource.com/rasta/sesostris...
Yemen is one of the oldest inhabited portions of the Arabian Peninsula. It includes the entire southwest quarter, which possesses many advantages in climate and soil. Yemen was a colony of early Black Africans until the Arabized Arabs who are described in the preceding paragraph gradually infiltrated it. According to the Catholic Encyclopedia, the Himyarites/Yemenites (and Hadramutians) are the same group of peoples as the African Ethiopians.
They are genetically, linguistically, and physically identical with Ethiopians. This may perhaps explain the reason why the ancient Greeks and Roman writers believed that Arabia was a political extension of Ethiopia Kush.(See Catholic Encyclopedia: Arab)
Even today, the similarity is so striking that one cannot fail to observe the clear connectedness between the Ethiopian tribes who live on both sides of the Red Sea.
http://www.africaresource.com/rasta/sesostris...
WHEN ARABIA WAS “EASTERN ETHIOPIA” Part I – By Dana Marniche
WHEN ARABIA WAS “EASTERN ETHIOPIA” Part I
By Dana Marniche
The Indigenous Populations of Arabia
The following quotes are from 19th and early 20th century Western historians, whom unlike today’s historians, understood the strong connection of the original Arabians with the Ethiopic peoples of Africa.
What a nice pile of afrocentrist BS. Like to say Europeans ruled in Africa long before any sub-Saharan black person ever existed. Actually, black people are mutated white people.lol What a BS.

“DANGER!!”

Level 8

Since: Feb 08

Location hidden

#22 May 22, 2010
Nerdtician wrote:
If so, then please tell me why they referred to Martin Lawrence character "Jamaal"(Muslim name) as a MOOR in the movie BLACK KNIGHT?
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v =9iDx4RdrASoXX
Uhhh, it was a MOVIE!!!

[email protected]!!!

Besides, the absolute most ardent of 'denigraters', of Spain, were people from Anglo cultures, so I would exactly be THAT interested, in theIR particular 'STORY TELLING' take on things.

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